Data Center
Management
1. _________
computing refers to applications and services that run on a distributed network
using virtualized resources.
a) Distributed
b) Cloud
c) Soft
d) Parallel
a) Distributed
b) Cloud
c) Soft
d) Parallel
Answer: b
2. Which
of the following is essential concept related to Cloud?
a) Reliability
b) Productivity
c) Abstraction
d) All of the mentioned
a) Reliability
b) Productivity
c) Abstraction
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
3. Explain
different models for deployment in cloud computing?
The different deployment
models in cloud computing are
a) Private
Cloud
b) Public
Cloud
c) Community
Cloud
d) Hybrid
Cloud
e) All
of above
Answer: e
4. What port is used for
HTTPS?
a) 443
b) 80
c) 23
d) 21
Answer: a
5. What
is the security aspects provided with cloud?
a) Identity
management: It authorizes the application services
b) Access
control: permission has to be provided to the users so that they can control
the access of another user who is entering into the cloud environment.
c) Authentication
and Authorization: Allows only the authorized and authenticated user only to
access the data and applications
d) All
of above
Answer: d
6. Cloud
computing is an abstraction based on the notion of pooling physical resources
and presenting them as a ________ resource.
a) real
b) virtual
c) cloud
d) none of the mentioned
b) virtual
c) cloud
d) none of the mentioned
Answer b
7. What
is the requirement of virtualization platform in implementing cloud?
The requirement of
virtualization platform in implementing cloud is to
a) Manage
the service level policies
b) Cloud
Operating System
c) Virtualization
platforms helps to keep the back-end level and user level concepts different
from each other
d) All
of above
Answer: d
8. Before
going for cloud computing platform what are the essential things to be taken in
concern by users?
a) Compliance
b) Loss
of data
c) Data
storage
d) Above
of all
Answer: d
9. Mention
some open source cloud computing platform databases?
The open source cloud
computing platform databases are
a) MongoDB
b) CouchDB
c) LucidDB
d) Above
of all
Answer: d
10. Mention
the name of some large cloud providers and databases?
a) Google
bigtable
b) Amazon
simpleDB
c) Cloud
based SQL
d) Above
of all
Answer: d
11. Explain
the difference between cloud and traditional datacenters?
a) The
cost of the traditional data center is higher due to heating and
hardware/software issues
b) Cloud
gets scaled when the demand increases. Majority of the expenses are
spent on the maintenance of the data centers, while that is not the case with
cloud computing
c) Above
of all
Answer: c
12. Which
of the following is Cloud Platform by Amazon ?
a) Azure
b) AWS
c) Cloudera
d) All of the mentioned
b) AWS
c) Cloudera
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
13. Which
of the following is owned by an organization selling cloud services ?
a) Public
b) Private
c) Community
d) Hybrid
b) Private
c) Community
d) Hybrid
Answer: a
14. _______
provides virtual machines, virtual storage, virtual infrastructure, and other
hardware assets
a) IaaS
b) SaaS
c) PaaS
d) All of the mentioned
b) SaaS
c) PaaS
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
15. How
many types of service model are mainly present in Cloud ?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: c
16. Which
of the following is most important area of concern in cloud computing ?
a) Security
b) Storage
c) Scalability
d) All of the mentioned
b) Storage
c) Scalability
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
17. What
are the business benefits involved in cloud architecture?
The benefits involved in
cloud architecture is
a) Zero
infrastructure investment
b) Just
in time infrastructure
c) More
efficient resource utilization
d) Above
of all
Answer: d
18. You
can’t count on a cloud provider maintaining your _____ in the face of
government actions.
a) scalability
b) reliability
c) privacy
d) none of the mentioned
b) reliability
c) privacy
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
19. Which
of the following is deployment model ?
a) public
b) private
c) hybrid
d) all of the mentioned
b) private
c) hybrid
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
20. The
________ cloud infrastructure is operated for the exclusive use of an
organization.
a) Public
b) Private
c) Community
d) All of the mentioned
b) Private
c) Community
d) All of the mentioned
Answer:b
21. List
down the basic characteristics of cloud computing?
a) Elasticity
and Scalability
b) Self-service
provisioning and automatic de-provisioning
c) Standardized
interfaces
d) Billing
self service based usage model
e) Above
of all
Answer: e
22. __________
cloud is one where the cloud has been organized to serve a common function or
purpose.
a) Public
b) Private
c) Community
d) All of the mentioned
b) Private
c) Community
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
23. What port is used
for HTTP?
a) 443
b) 80
c) 23
d) 21
Answer: b
24. Custom application
development is generally done on which type of cloud service?
a)
Infrastructure-as-a-Service (IaaS)
b) Software-as-a-Service
(SaaS)
c) Platform-as-a-Service
(PaaS)
d)
Development-as-a-Service (DaaS)
Ans-C
25. In general, which
type of cloud service provides the most areas of accountability for the
customer?
a) Platform-as-a-Service
(PaaS)
b) Security-as-a-Service
c) Infrastructure-as-a-Service
(IaaS)
d) Software-as-a-Service
(SaaS)
Ans-c
26. Which
of the following model allows vendor to provide security as part of the Service
Level Agreement ?
a)SaaS
b)PaaS
c)IaaS
d)None Of these
Ans-a
27. ________
describes a distribution model in which applications are hosted by a service
provider and made available to users.
A. Infrastructure-as-a-Service (IaaS)
B. Platform-as-a-Service (PaaS)
C. Software-as-a-Service (SaaS)
D. Cloud service
Ans-c
28. To find the best
security-as-a-service offering for your organization:
a) Ask the vendor what
they recommend
b) Assess your
requirements, do a risk assessment and a cost/benefit analysis of the options
c) Find the cheapest
monthly option and use whatever is offered with that service
d) Ask your peers and do
exactly what they're doing
Ans-b
29. Access to a Cloud
environment always costs more money compared to a traditional desktop
a) True
b) False
Ans-b
30. A Cloud environment
can be accessed from anywhere in the world as long as the user has access to
the Internet
a) True
b) False
Ans-a
31. What are
the advantages of using cloud computing?
The advantages of using
cloud computing are
a) Data
backup and storage of data
b) Powerful
server capabilities
c) SaaS
( Software as a service)
d) Information
technology sandboxing capabilities
e) Increase
in productivity
f) Cost
effective & Time saving
Ans-all
32. _________ is the feature of cloud computing
that allows the service to change in size or volume in order to meet a user’s
needs.
A. Scalability
B. Virtualization
C. Security
D. Cost-savings
Ans-a
33. Mention
the services that are provided by Window Azure Operating System?
a) Compute
b) Storage
c) Management
d) Hardware
service
ans-a,b,c
34. ________ describes a cloud service that can
only be accessed by a limited amount of people.
A. Data center
B. Private cloud
C. Virtualization
D. Public cloud
ans- b
35. List down the
basic characteristics of cloud computing?
a) Elasticity
and Scalability
b) Self-service
provisioning and automatic de-provisioning
c) Standardized
interfaces
d) Billing
self-service based usage model
e) All
of above
ans- e
36. Mention some open
source cloud computing platform databases?
The open source cloud
computing platform databases are
a) MongoDB
b) CouchDB
c) LucidDB
ans-all
37. Before going
for cloud computing platform what are the essential things to be taken in
concern by users?
a) Compliance
b) Loss
of data
c) Data
storage
d) Business
continuity
e) Uptime
f) Data
integrity in cloud computing
ans-all
38. What is the
requirement of virtualization platform in implementing cloud?
The requirement of
virtualization platform in implementing cloud is to
a) Manage
the service level policies
b) Cloud
Operating System
c) Virtualization
platforms helps to keep the backend level and user level concepts different from
each other
ans-all
39. Which are
different models for deployment in cloud computing?
a) Private
Cloud
b) Public
Cloud
c) Community
Cloud
d) Hybrid
Cloud
ans-All
40. What are the
advantages of using cloud computing?
The advantages of using
cloud computing are
a) Data
backup and storage of data
b) Powerful
server capabilities
c) SaaS
( Software as a service)
d) Information
technology sandboxing capabilities
e) Increase
in productivity
f) Cost
effective & Time saving
ans-all
41. What are the
benefits of cloud computing?
The main benefits of
cloud computing are:
a) Data backup and
storage of data.
b) Powerful server
capabilities.
c) Incremented
productivity.
d)Cost effective and
time saving.
Ans-all
42. Give the best
example for open source Cloud Computing.
a) OpenStack
b) Windows
stack
ans-a
43. Which of the
following is not a cloud service model?
a)SaaS
b)PaaS
c)CaaS
d)IaaS
ans-c
44. Which of
the following is best known service model ?
a)SaaS
b)PaaS
c) IaaS
d) All of above
ans-d
45. Which of
the following cloud concept is related to pooling and sharing of resources ?
a) Polymorphism
b) Abstraction
c) Virtualization
d) None of the mentioned
Ans-c
46. Which Data Center
is Fault Tolerance?
I. Tier
1
II. Tier
2
III. Tier
3
IV. Tier
4
Answer: IV
47. What is the full
form of TIA?
I. Telecommunications
Industry Association
II. Telnet
Industry Association
III. Telecom
Industry Association
IV. Tech
Information Association
Answer: I
(Telecommunications Industry Association)
48. What is the
full form of ANSI?
I. American
National Structured Institute
II. American
National Standards Institute
III. American
Narcotic Standards Institute
IV. Associate
National Standards Industry
Answer: II (American
National Standards Institute)
49. The term ‘Tier’ was
used in the ANSI/TIA-942 Standard until the ANSI/TIA-942: _________ edition?
I. April-2015
II. June-2016
III. March-2014
IV. May-2014
Answer: III (March-2014)
50. Tier II annual
outage of up to?
I. 1
hours
II. 22
hours
III. 4
hours
IV. 11
hours
Answer: II (22 hours)
51. Tier IV
availability %?
I. 98.995%
II. 99.000%
III. 99.900%
IV. 99.995%
Answer: IV (99.995%)
52. DASD?
I. Direct-Access
Storage Device
II. Data-Access
Storage Device
III. Direct-Access
Storage Data
IV. Direct-Access
Structure Data
Answer: I (Direct-
Access Storage Device)
53. For this Uptime
Tier, critical power and cooling components -- not their delivery paths -- must
be redundant.
I. TIER
I
II. TIER
II
III. TIER
III
IV. TIER
IV
Answer: II (TIER
II)
54. This Uptime
Tier DOES NOT requires redundant facility components.
I. TIER
I
II. TIER
II
III. TIER
III
IV. TIER
IV
Answer: I (TIER I)
55. Raised Floor
System’s for 1000 to 5000 square feet?
I. 12
to 18 inches
II. 10
to 16 inches
III. 12
to 17 inches
IV. 11
to 18 inches
Answer: I (12 to
18 inches)
56. HVAC?
I. Heating,
ventilation, and air conditioning
II. Health,
ventilation, and air conditioning
III. Heating,
ventilation, and air cooler
IV. Heat-ventilator,
and air conditioning
Answer: I
(Heating, ventilation, and air conditioning)
57. UPS?
I. Unorganized
Power Supply
II. Unite
Power Supply
III. Uninterruptible
Power Solution
IV. Uninterruptible
Power Supply
Answer: IV
(Uninterruptible Power Supply)
58. An average
panel size?
I. 25"
x 25"
II. 24"
x 24"
III. 26"
x 26"
IV. 28"
x 28"
Answer: II
(24" x 24")
59. Which of the
following is not a benefit of server virtualization technology?
a) Agile capacity
b) More hardware
c) Expanded disaster
recovery options
d) Better utilization of
resources
Answer: b
60. When
implementing virtualization, a server must provide ample memory space for the
______.
a)Operating system
b)Hypervisor
c)Virtual machines on
the server
d)All of the above
Answer: d
61. Which is not a Data
center components
a) Cooling
b) RACK
c) Access Control
d) Storage
e) Printer
Answer: e
62. What are the 3
key components of a physical infrastructure in a data center?
I. Systems
II. Connectivity
III. Data
IV. All
of the above
Answer: IV (All of
the above)
63. DCIE?
I. Data
Center Infrastructure Efficiency
II. Data
Center Intervention Efficiency
III. Data
Center Infrastructure Enterprise
IV. Data
Cloud Infrastructure Efficiency
Answer: I (Data
Center Infrastructure Efficiency)
64. TIER
III fault tolerant %?
I. 89.982%
II. 99.983%
III. 79.984%
IV. 99.999%
Answer: I
(99.982%)
65. The
ANSI/TIA-942 specification references private and public domain data center
requirements for applications and procedures such as:
I. Network
Architecture
II. System
Redundancy
III. Network
Access Control & Security
IV. All
of the above.
Answer: IV (All of the
above)
66. How many area
networks are there?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Answer: b
67. What is the
full form of WAN?
a) World Area Network
b) Web Area Network
c) Wide Area Network
d) Wild Area Network
Answer: c
68. How many main
local area network topologies are there?
a) 5
b) 6
c) 4
d) 3
Answer: d
69. Which one
network topology?
a) Bus
b) Ring
c) Mesh
d) All of the above
Answer: d
70. Which types of
cable used in Star topology?
a) Coaxial
b) Twisted pair
c) Fiber optic
d) All of the above
Answer: d
71. Which types of
cabling used in Ring topology?
a) Coaxial or Fiber
optic
b) Twisted pair or Fiber
optic
c) Coaxial or Twisted
pair
d) All of the above
Answer: b
72. What is full
form of MAC?
a) Media Advanced
Control
b) Media Access Control
c) Multi Access Control
d) Mid Access Control
Answer: b
73. Which one
wireless topologies?
a) Ad hoc
b) Infrastructure
c) Both a & b
d) None of the above
Answer: c
74. How many types
cable are used in LAN?
a)
2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Answer: b
75. How many types
wiring are there?
a)
2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Answer: a
76. Which topology
used to use baseband signaling method?
a) Bus
b) Star
c) Ring
d) All of the above
Answer: d
77. What is full
form of AUI?
a) Attach Unit Interface
b) Attachment Unit
Interface
c) Anti-attach Unit
Interface
d) Advance Unit
Interface
Answer: b
78. What is full
form of UTP cable?
a) Unit Twisted Pair
b) Unshielded Twisted
Pair
c) Unit-shielded Twisted
Pair
d) None of the above
Answer: b
79. Which cable
used in LAN?
a) Coaxial
b) Twisted pair
c) Fiber optic
d) All of the above
Answer: d
80. Which topology
requires an enormous amount of cable?
a) Bus
b) Ring
c) Mesh
d) All of the above
Answer: c
81. What is the
full form of LAN?
a) Land Area Network
b) Long Area Network
c) Local Area Network
d) None of the above
Answer: c
82. What is the
full form of MAN?
a) Metro Area Network
b) Metropolitan Area
Network
c) Both a & b
d) None of the above
Answer: b
83. Segments are
connected by.................?
a) Consoles
b) Repeaters
c) Hubs
d) None of the above
Answer: b
84. Which topology
supports baseband and broadband signals?
a) Bus
b) Ring
c) Mesh
d) None
Answer: c
85. Which one is
topology below here?
a) Bus
b) Ring
c) Mesh
d) All of the above
Answer: d
86. Consists of the
hardware in a biometric device that converts biometric input into electrical
signals and conveys this information to the attached computer, such as a
fingerprint sensor.
a) Arch
b) Sensor
c) Identity
d) Mimic
Answer: b
87. A method of
biometric identification and pattern recognition that is used to determine the
identity of the subject.
a)
Ridge Ending
b) Iris
recognition
c) Iris
Scanning
d) Live
Scan
Answer: b
88. All but one of
the following is examples of two-factor authentication. Which of these is the
odd one out, because it does not involve two factors?
a) A
VPN token and password
b) Entering
your password twice
c) The
chip and PIN on a bank card
d) A
hardware security token and password
Answer: b
89. A method that
uses two independent pieces/processes of information to identify a user is
known as…
a) Authentication
through encryption
b) Password-method
authentication
c) Two-method
authentication
d) Two-factor
authentication
Answer: d
90.
Authentication is
a) Restrictions
on who (or what) can access system
b) Process
by which you verify that someone is who they claim they are
c) Finding
out if the person, once identified, is permitted to have the resource.
d) a,
b, and c
Answer: d
91. Inference
control is a mechanism to confine the information content of data or behaviour
made accessible to or being observable by a participant to whom some piece(s)
of information should be kept confidential.
a)
True
b) False
Answer: a
92. A CAPTCHA is an
acronym for "completely automated public Turing test to tell computers and
humans apart") is a type of challenge–response test used in computing to
determine whether or not the user is human. The common form of CAPTCHA is:
a)
Audio
b) Visual
c) Text
d) All
of The Above
Answer: d
93. Firewall must
determine what to let in to internal network and/or what to let out
a)
As CEO
b) As
Secretary
c) As
MD
d) As
Prime Minister
Answer: b
94. How to
authenticate a human to a machine?
a)
Password
b) Smartcard
c) Fingerprint
d) All
of The Above
Answer: d
95. Password acts
as!
a) PIN
b) Social
security number
c) Mother’s
maiden name
d) All
of The Above
Answer: d
96. SPSE key is
_______ keys and _______ bits.
a)
Crypto, 64
b) Crypto,
61
c) Cyber
ton, 63
d) Passkey,
62
Answer: a
97. Which one is
true?
a)
SPSE passwords are 6 characters and 250 different characters.
b) SPSE
passwords are 7 characters and 256 different characters.
c) SPSE
passwords are 8 characters and 256 different characters.
d) SPSE
passwords are 6 characters and 290 different characters.
Answer: c
98. Which attack
is quite common?
a)
Dictionary attack
b) Dictator
attack
c) Durable
attack
d) Device
attack
Answer: a
99. Which password
will be considered as strong password?
a)
POkem0N09
b) 4444
c) 102560
d) AustinStamp
Answer: a
100. Which one is
a bad password?
a)
09864376537263
b) Fsa7YagO
c) PokEGCTall150
d) Fido
Answer: d
101. What is the
percentage of the chance of easy to crack password.
a)
30%
b) 40%
c) 50%
d) 60%
Answer: a
102. Which are the
popular password cracking tools?
a)
Password Crackers
b) Password
nutshell
c) John
the Ripper (Unix)
d) a
and c
Answer: d
103. Intrusion
prevention is a traditional focus of computer security
a) Authentication
is to prevent intrusions
b) Firewalls
a form of intrusion prevention
c) Virus
defences also intrusion prevention
d) All
of the above
Answer: d
104. What do intruders
do?
a) Launch
well-known antivirus
b) Launch
new or little-known attacks
c) Use
a system to attack other systems
d) b
and c
Answer: d
105. Intrusion
detection systems (IDS) scans for
a) unusual
activity
b) day
to day activity
c) system
loopholes
d) files
anomaly
Answer:
a
106. Which Component is most vital of a Colocation Data
Center?
¨ Space ¨ Raise
Floor þ Power ¨ Rack
107. The lifetime
of Telco/Electric devices depend upon;
þ Proper
Temperature ¨ Lighting
system ¨ Fire
Protection ¨ None
of them
108. Major Consideration
of Load calculation (Power);
¨ No of
Rack ¨ Space ¨ No
of Light þ Devices
per rack, Total Racks & Space
109. Availability of
Tier-4 Data Center;
þ 99.995% ¨ 99.982% ¨ 99.74% ¨ 99.67%
110. Continuous Cooling
requirements in
¨ Tier-1
DC ¨ Tier-2
DC ¨ Tier-3
DC þ Tier-4 DC
111. As per Gatner
Report, Average Power load per rack;
þ 4
KW ¨ 6
KW ¨ 10
KW ¨ None
of above
112. Detail of the power
usage pattern in the data center:
¨ Power
(AC) ¨ Power
(DC) ¨ UPS/Inverter ¨ Generator þ All
of above
113. Generally Cooling
System in a data center;
¨ PAC ¨ Free
Cooling ¨ Chiller þ All
of above
114. What is the Energy
Factor for HVAC?
þ 60% ¨ 50% ¨ 40% ¨ 80%
115. Which is not the
power component?
¨ UPS ¨ PDF ¨ Substation þ ODF/DDF
116. OPEX (mainly) of a
data center depends upon;
¨ Load
usage & Cost per KWh ¨ Salary and
Wages ¨ Rent & office
maintenance þ All of above
117. Please select the
relationship between Heat and Power
þ Watt—BTU/hr—Tons ¨ KWh—Tons---
BTU/hr ¨ Tons—Kw--- BTU/hr ¨ None
of above
118. DRS is Needed for
Redundancy?
þ Yes ¨ No
119. Single
Mode Fibre transmits signals over long distances by carrying light.
a.
True b. False
Ans: a
120. Where
Single-mode fibre optic cables are utilized?
a. Lower bandwidth
applications b. Higher bandwidth applications
c.
Both d.
None of these
Ans: b
121.
Single-mode fibre has small core size of –
a. 7
microns b.
8 microns
c. 9
microns d.
10 microns
Ans: c
122. At which Wavelength
the single-mode fibers in telecommunication cables operate?
a. 1210 or 1450
nm b.
1310 or 1450 nm
c. 1310 or 1550 nm d.
1410 or 1650 nm
Ans: c
123. Maximum bandwidths
and corresponding distances for single-mode are: 80 km for 10-gigabit Ethernet
at 1310nm and 200km at 1550nm.
a.
True b.
False
Ans: b
124. Which fibre
is recommended for Gigabit Ethernet?
a.
Single-mode b.
Multi-mode
c.
Optical d.
None of These
Ans: a
125. What is
the color of jacket for OM1?
a.
Red b.
Blue
c.
Aqua d.
Orange
Ans: d
126. What is the data
rate for OM1?
a. 2GB @
850nm b.
1GB @ 550nm
c. 1GB @
850nm d.
2GB @ 950nm
Ans: c
127. The core size
of OM2-
a.
40um b.
50um
c. 60um d.
70um
Ans: b
128. The distance
coverage by OM2 is up to 700 meters.
a.
True b.
False
Ans: b
129. The Data rate for
OM3- Laser-Optimized Multimode-
a. 10GB @
850nm b. 5GB
@ 850nm
c. 8GB @
850nm d.
3GB @ 850nm
Ans: a
130. OM3 Able to
run 40GB or 100GB up to 100 meters utilizing a MPO connector.
a.
True b.
False
Ans: a
131. What is the
color of jacket for OM3?
a.
Red b.
Blue
c.
Aqua d.
Orange
Ans: c
132. Nodes are another
name of
a)Devices
b)Links
c)Medium
d)Modes
Ans: a
133. OM4 fibre is
not used in where?
a. Data
Centers b.
Financial Centers
c. Corporate
Campuses d.
None of These
Ans:
d
134. OM5 fibre specifies
a wider range of wavelengths between 800nm and 993nm.
a.
True b.
False
Ans: b
135. Why OM5 fibre is
better than OM4 fibre?
a. Transmission
distance b.
Speed
c.
Cost d.
All of the above
Ans: d
136. Official cable
jacket color for OM5-
a.
Red b.
Lime Green
c.
Orange d.
Aqua
Ans: b
137. OM1 and OM2 fibres
can not support 25Gbps and 40 Gbps data transmission.
a.
True b.
False
Ans: a
138. OM5 is
designed to reduce fibre counts for high speed transmission.
a.
True b.
False
Ans:a
139. What is PDU in power?
a)Project distribution unit
b)Power district unit
c)Power distribution unit
d)None
Ans: c
140. An average data center consumes over
100x the power of a large commercial office building, True or False.
Ans: True
141. How much global electricity consume by Data
Center’s?
a) 2.5%%
b) 3%
c) 3.5%
d) 4%
Ans: b
142. DR Means?
a) Disaster Recovery
b) Data Recovery
c) Disaster Replace
d) Data Reset
Ans: a
143. 40% of the total operational costs
for a data center come from the energy, True or False.
Ans: true
144. Which is not a Operatin System?
a) Linux
b) Windos
c) IOS
d) Microsoft
Word
Ans: d
145. What is not needed for ‘tier I, II
' data centers?
a) Dual-power
source
b) Cooling
system
c) Dual IT
equipment
d) Disaster
Recovery
Ans: Disaster Recovery
146. What is the redundant rate of ‘tier
III’ data center?
a) 99.971%
b) 99.941%
c) 99.982%
d) 99.995%
Ans: c
147. What is Data Center Risk Factor?
a) Natural
disaster
b) Human
caused
c) Climate
d) Civil
Disruptions
Ans: All
148. Google goal is powered its data
centers by 100 percent renewable energy, True or False.
Ans: True
149. Google use water to cooling its data
centers, Ture or False.
150. Which is not Data Centre Certification
Body?
a) ANSI/BICSI
002-2014
b) The
Green Grid
c) BSTI
d) TIA-942
Ans: c
151. How many Tiers of data are there?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
Ans: b
152. Disaster Recovery is the most important
part of ‘tier I’ data center, True or False.
Ans: False
153. ‘Tier III’ data center needed dual
power source, True or False.
Ans: true
154. What is facility Risk Factor?
a) Supplier
outages
b) Natural
disasters
c) Human
Caused
d) Power
Ans: d
155. The Green Grid is profitable
organization, True or False.
Ans: True
156. What is External Risk Factor?
a) Water
b) Natural
disasters
c) Fire
d) Power
Ans: b
157. What is Data System Risk Factor?
a) Viruses
b) Natural
disasters
c) Fire
d) Power
Ans: a
158. In ‘tier IV’ data center all cooling
equipment is independently single powered; adds Fault-tolerance (99.995%, 26
minutes), True or False
Ans: False
159. CIA Stands For
a) Confidentiality, Integer, Accounting
b) Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
c) Confidence, Integer, Availability
d) Confidentiality, Integer, Availability
Ans: b
160. What is DoS Attack?
a) Distributed of Service
b) Denial of Service
c) District of Service
d) Divide of Service
Ans: b
161. To hide information inside a picture, what
technology is used?
a) Rootkits
b) Bitmapping
c) Steganography
d) Image Rendering
b) Bitmapping
c) Steganography
d) Image Rendering
Ans: c
162. What is the
purpose of a Denial of Service attack?
a) Exploit a weakness in
the TCP/IP stack
b) To execute a Trojan on a system
c) To overload a system so it is no longer operational
d) To shutdown services by turning them off
b) To execute a Trojan on a system
c) To overload a system so it is no longer operational
d) To shutdown services by turning them off
Ans: c
163. What is the
sequence of a TCP connection?
a) SYN-ACK-FIN
b) SYN-SYN ACK-ACK
c) SYN-ACK
d) SYN-SYN-ACK
b) SYN-SYN ACK-ACK
c) SYN-ACK
d) SYN-SYN-ACK
Ans: b
164. Why would a
ping sweep be used?
a) To identify live
systems
b) To locate live systems
c) To identify open ports
d) To locate firewalls
b) To locate live systems
c) To identify open ports
d) To locate firewalls
Ans: a
165. What port does
Telnet use?
a) 22
b) 80
c) 20
d) 23
b) 80
c) 20
d) 23
Ans: d
166. What is the most
important activity in system hacking?
a) Information gathering
b) Cracking passwords
c) Escalating privileges
d) Covering tracks
Ans: b
167. What protocol is
the Active Directory database based on?
a) LDAP
b) TCP
c) SQL
d) HTTP
Ans: a
168. Services running on
a system are determined by _____________.
a) The system’s IP
address.
b) The Active Directory
c) The system’s network
name
d) The port assigned
Ans: d
169. Keyloggers are a
form of ______________.
a) Spyware
b) Shoulder surfing
c) Trojan
d) Social engineering
Ans:a
170. What is the best
statement for taking advantage of a weakness in the security of an IT system?
a) Threat
b) Attack
c) Exploit
d) Vulnerability
Ans: c
171. BIA Means?
a) Business Impact
Analysis
b) Business Integrity
Analyst
c) Business Impact
Analyst
d) Business Import
Analyst
Ans: a
172. Which are BCP
steps?
a) Risk Analysis
b) BIA
c) Plan
d) Training, Testing,
Auding
e) All of above
Ans: e
173. Which two of the
following statements are true about a switch? (choose two)
a) It is a repeater.
b) It is a data link
layer device.
c) It will forward the
frame out all ports when it receives a broadcast from a host.
d) It reads the
destination Mac address to forward traffic out the appropriate port.
e. It acts as an
amplifier.
ans: b,d
174. Which of the
following best describes the cable that is used to connect a laptop to an
Ethernet port on a
cisco router?
a) crossover
b) Straight-through
c) Fiber
d) Rollover
ans: a
175. Which type of cable
used on the ATM card?
a) Fiber-optic
b) coaxial
c) Serial
d) crossover
Ans: a
176. For which type of
connection should a straight-through cable be used?
a) switch to switch
b) switch to hub
c) switch to router
d) hub to hub
E) router to Pc
ans: c
177. Which type of cable
is used to connect the cOM port of a host to the cOM port of a router or
switch?
a) crossover
b) straight-through
c) rolled
d) shielded twisted-pair
ans: c
178. The speed of
Ethernet is
a) 64 Kbps
b) 64 Mbps
c) 10 Kbps
d) 10 Mbps
ans: d
179. With which of the
following characteristics, the design issues of a physical layer deals ?
a) Mechanical
b) Electrical
c) Functional
d) all of above
ans: d
180. Data
which is routed between networks or from node to node within networks requires
only the functions of OSI
a ) Layers 1 and 2
b) Layers 1 through 3
c) all layers
d) None of the above
ans: b
181. A device operating
at the network layer is called a
a)Bridge
b)Router
c)Repeater
d)None of the above
Ans: b
182. Usually
traffic in a network is measured by
a)blocking probabilities
b)grade of service
c)relative congestion
d)erlangs
Ans: c
183. ___________
are rules that govern a communication exchange.
a)Media
b)Interfaces
c)Protocols
d)All of the above
Ans: c
184. Which of the
following OS is not based on Linux?
a)Ubuntu
b)Redhat
c)CentOs
d)BSD
Ans: d
185. Maximum how
long can a Linux filename be?
a)128 bytes
b)255 bytes
c)32 bytes
d)64 bytes
Ans: b
186. Which
command(s) is/are used to get help about a command in Linux?
a)info
b)man
c)None of these
d)Both a and b
Ans: d
187. Which of the
following OS is not based on Linux?
a)Ubuntu
b)Redhat
c)CentOs
d)BSD
Ans:d
188. Which command
is used to get the kernel version in Linux?
a)uname -r
b)kernel
c)uname -n
d)uname -s
Ans:a
189. Which command
is used to list all the files ?
a)ls
b)rm -r
c)list
d)lis
190. Which command
is used for showing current directory?
a)ls
b)cp
c)pwd
d)cd
Ans: c
191. Which
command is/are used to remove directory in Linux?
a)rmdir
b)rm -r
c)pwd
d)both a & b
Ans: d
192. Which of the
following command is used to create file in Linux?
a)touch
b)cat
c)echo
d)All of the above
Ans:d
193. In Linux
everything stored as a
a)file
b)directory
c)executables
d)None of the above
Ans:a
194. Which command is
used to display the operating system name?
a) os
b) unix
c) kernel
d) uname
a) os
b) unix
c) kernel
d) uname
Ans: d
195. The permission
–rwx-r–r– represented in octal expression will be
a) 777
b) 666
c) 744
d) 711
a) 777
b) 666
c) 744
d) 711
Ans: c
196. Which of these is
not a Unix Flavor?
a) BSD
b) MAC
c) AIX
d) IRIX
a) BSD
b) MAC
c) AIX
d) IRIX
Ans: b
197. Which of the
following UNIX flavor is from IBM?
a) BSD
b) Solaris
c) HP-UX
d) AIX
a) BSD
b) Solaris
c) HP-UX
d) AIX
Ans: d
198. Which among
the following is used to write small programs to control Unix functionalities?
a) Shell Commands
b) Shell Script
c) Filters
d) C Language
b) Shell Script
c) Filters
d) C Language
Ans: b
199. Command used to
count number of character in a file is
a) grep
b) wc
c) count
d) cut
a) grep
b) wc
c) count
d) cut
Ans: wc
200. Which of the
following commands can be used to copy files across systems?
a) ssh
b) telnet
c) rsh
d) ftp
b) telnet
c) rsh
d) ftp
Ans: d
201. Which
Protocol is vulnerable?
a)telnet
b)ssh
c)sftp
d) all of above
Ans: a
202. Which of the
following commands will allow the user to search contents of a file for a
particular pattern
a) touch
b) grep
c) find
d) ls
b) grep
c) find
d) ls
Ans: b
203. FTP means?
a) File Transfer Person
b) File Transit
Parameter
c) File Transfer
Protocol
d) None
Ans: c
204. A program
that can retrieve files from the world wide web and render text, images or
sounds encoded in the files.
a) Browser
b) Internet
c) Server
d) Web Server
b) Internet
c) Server
d) Web Server
Ans: a
205. Which of the
following is not a type of browser?
a) Netscape
b) Web
c) IE
d) Mozilla
a) Netscape
b) Web
c) IE
d) Mozilla
Ans: b
206. Both client
and server release _________ connection after a page has been transferred.
a) IP
b) TCP
c) Hyperlink
d) Network
b) TCP
c) Hyperlink
d) Network
Ans: b
207. The web works
on this model.
a) Intranet
b) Internet
c) Client-Server
d) Server
b) Internet
c) Client-Server
d) Server
Ans: c
208. In the
Client-server model, the client receives a request from the server.
a) True
b) False
b) False
Ans: b
209. Which of the
following is not a type of server?
a) File
b) Web
c) Name
d) Browsers
b) Web
c) Name
d) Browsers
Ans: d
210. Apache is a
type of ________
a) Transmission control
program
b) Web Server
c) Web Browser
d) DBMS
b) Web Server
c) Web Browser
d) DBMS
Ans: b
211. Any computer
that can access the server is called?
a) Web Server
b) Web Browser
c) User
d) Web Client
b) Web Browser
c) User
d) Web Client
Ans: d
212. Bus is a type
of topology.
a) True
b) False
b) False
Ans: a
213. _____ LAN
topology describes the possible connections between pairs of networked
end-points that can communicate.
a) Complex
b) Physical
c) Logical
d) Incremental
b) Physical
c) Logical
d) Incremental
Ans: c
214. A term that
refers to the way in which the nodes of a network are linked together.
a) network
b) topology
c) connection
d) interconnectivity
b) topology
c) connection
d) interconnectivity
Ans: b
215. A network
comprising o multiple topologies.
a) Complex
b) Hybrid
c) Bus
d) Star
b) Hybrid
c) Bus
d) Star
Ans: b
216. he
participating computers in a network are referred to as:
a) Clients
b) Servers
c) Nodes
d) CPUs
b) Servers
c) Nodes
d) CPUs
Ans: c
217. A
____________WAN can be developed using leased private lines or any other
transmission facility
a) Hybrids
b) peer-to-peer
c) Two-tiered
d) Three-tiered
b) peer-to-peer
c) Two-tiered
d) Three-tiered
Ans: b
218. A serially
connected system of all the hubs of networks.
a) Bus
b) Ring
c) Daisy chains
d) Star
b) Ring
c) Daisy chains
d) Star
Ans: c
219. Plain text is
the data after encryption is performed.
a) True
b) False
b) False
Ans: b
220. A unique
piece of information that is used in encryption.
a) Cipher
b) Plain Text
c) Key
d) Cipher
b) Plain Text
c) Key
d) Cipher
Ans: c
221. Study of creation
of encryption and decryption techniques.
a) Cipher
b) Cryptography
c) Encryption
d) Decryption
a) Cipher
b) Cryptography
c) Encryption
d) Decryption
Ans: b
222. A malicious
code hidden inside a seemingly harmless piece of code.
a) Worm
b) Bomb
c) Trojan Horse
d) Virus
b) Bomb
c) Trojan Horse
d) Virus
Ans: c
223. Attack in
which a user creates a packet that appears to be something else.
a) Smurfing
b) Trojan
c) E-mail bombing
d) Spoofing
b) Trojan
c) E-mail bombing
d) Spoofing
Ans: d
224. An attack in which
the user receives unwanted amount of e-mails.
a) Smurfing
b) Denial of service
c) E-mail bombing
d) Ping storm
b) Denial of service
c) E-mail bombing
d) Ping storm
Ans: c
225. Network
Security provides authentication and access control for resources.
a) True
b) False
b) False
Ans: a
226. Which is not
an objective of network security?
a) Identification
b) Authentication
c) Access control
d) Lock
b) Authentication
c) Access control
d) Lock
Ans: d
227. The process
of verifying the identity of a user.
a) Authentication
b) Identification
c) Validation
d) Verification
b) Identification
c) Validation
d) Verification
Ans: a
228. A concern of
authentication that deals with user rights.
a) General access
b) Functional authentication
c) Functional authorization
d) Auto verification
b) Functional authentication
c) Functional authorization
d) Auto verification
Ans: c
229. Security features
that control that can access resources in the OS.
a) Authentication
b) Identification
c) Validation
d) Access control
a) Authentication
b) Identification
c) Validation
d) Access control
Ans: d
230. An algorithm in encryption
is called _____________
a) Algorithm
b) Procedure
c) Cipher
d) Module
a) Algorithm
b) Procedure
c) Cipher
d) Module
Ans: c
231. The
information that gets transformed in encryption is ____________
a) Plain text
b) Parallel text
c) Encrypted text
d) Decrypted text
b) Parallel text
c) Encrypted text
d) Decrypted text
Ans: a
232.
________________ is a paradigm of distributed computing to provide the
customers on-demand, utility based computing service.
a) Remote Sensing
b) Remote Invocation
c) Cloud Computing
d) Private Computing
b) Remote Invocation
c) Cloud Computing
d) Private Computing
Ans: c
233. Cloud
providers provide cloud services to the cloud users.
a) True
b) False
b) False
Ans: a
234. Which of the
following is not a cloud stakeholder?
a) Cloud providers
b) Clients
c) End users
d) Cloud users
b) Clients
c) End users
d) Cloud users
Ans: b
235. These cloud
services are of the form of utility computing i.e. the _________ uses these
services pay-as-you-go model.
a) Cloud providers
b) Clients
c) End users
d) Cloud users
b) Clients
c) End users
d) Cloud users
Ans: d
236. Which of the
following is not a type of cloud?
a) Private
b) Public
c) Protected
d) Hybrid
a) Private
b) Public
c) Protected
d) Hybrid
Ans: c
237. In this type of
cloud, an organization rents cloud services from cloud providers on-demand
basis.
a) Private
b) Public
c) Protected
d) Hybrid
a) Private
b) Public
c) Protected
d) Hybrid
Ans: b
238. In this type
of cloud, the cloud is composed of multiple internal or external cloud.
a) Private
b) Public
c) Protected
d) Hybrid
b) Public
c) Protected
d) Hybrid
Ans:d
239. _____________
enables the migration of the virtual image from one physical machine to
another.
a) visualization
b) virtualization
c) migration
d) virtual transfer
b) virtualization
c) migration
d) virtual transfer
Ans: b
240. Most of the cloud
architectures are built on this type of architecture.
a) skeleton
b) grid
c) linear
d) template
a) skeleton
b) grid
c) linear
d) template
Ans: b
241. Saas stands for?
a) Software as a service
b) System Software and services
c) Software as a system
d) System as a service
a) Software as a service
b) System Software and services
c) Software as a system
d) System as a service
Ans: a
242. Paas stands for
a)Platform as system
b)Platform as Software
c) Platform as a Service
d) None
Ans: c
243. A plug and play
storage device that simply plugs in the port of a computer is __________
a) Flash drive
b) Compact disk
c) Hard disk
d) CD
a) Flash drive
b) Compact disk
c) Hard disk
d) CD
Ans: a
244. A device similar to
a flash drive ______________
a) Memory card
b) Compact drive
c) Compact disk
d) Memory disk
a) Memory card
b) Compact drive
c) Compact disk
d) Memory disk
Ans: a
245. What does RAID
stand for?
a) Redundant array of independent disks
b) Redundant array of inexpensive disks
c) Redundant array of intermediate disks
d) Redundant array of improper disks
a) Redundant array of independent disks
b) Redundant array of inexpensive disks
c) Redundant array of intermediate disks
d) Redundant array of improper disks
Ans: b
246. The _____ is
something that you can obtain under contract from your vendor.
a) PoS
b) QoS
c) SoS
d) All of the mentioned
a) PoS
b) QoS
c) SoS
d) All of the mentioned
Ans: b
247. Cloud computing is
a _______ system and it is necessarily unidirectional in nature.
a) stateless
b) stateful
c) reliable
d) all of the mentioned
a) stateless
b) stateful
c) reliable
d) all of the mentioned
Ans: a
248. Which of the
following is a compliance standard?
a) PCI-DSS
b) HIPPA
c) GLBA
d) All of the mentioned
a) PCI-DSS
b) HIPPA
c) GLBA
d) All of the mentioned
Ans: d
249. Which of the
following is a common means for losing encrypted data?
a) lose the keys
b) lose the encryption standard
c) lose the account
d) all of the mentioned
a) lose the keys
b) lose the encryption standard
c) lose the account
d) all of the mentioned
Ans: a
250. Which of the
following is one of the most actively developing and important areas of cloud
computing technology?
a) Logging
b) Auditing
c) Regulatory compliance
d) None of the mentioned
a) Logging
b) Auditing
c) Regulatory compliance
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: c
251. Secure shell (SSH)
network protocol is used for
a) secure data communication
b) remote command-line login
c) remote command execution
d) all of the mentioned
a) secure data communication
b) remote command-line login
c) remote command execution
d) all of the mentioned
Ans: d
252. SSH can be used in
only
a) unix-like operating systems
b) windows
c) both unix-like and windows systems
d) none of the mentioned
a) unix-like operating systems
b) windows
c) both unix-like and windows systems
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: c
253. SSH uses
___________ to authenticate the remote computer.
a) public-key cryptography
b) private-key cryptography
c) any of public-key or private-key
d) none of the mentioned
a) public-key cryptography
b) private-key cryptography
c) any of public-key or private-key
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: a
254. Which standard TCP
port is assigned for contacting SSH servers?
a) port 21
b) port 22
c) port 23
d) port 24
a) port 21
b) port 22
c) port 23
d) port 24
Ans: b
255. Which one of the
following protocol can be used for login to a shell on a remote host except
SSH?
a) telnet
b) rlogin
c) both telnet and rlogin
d) none of the mentioned
a) telnet
b) rlogin
c) both telnet and rlogin
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: c
256. Which one of the
following is a file transfer protocol using SSH?
a) SCP
b) SFTP
c) Rsync
d) All of the mentioned
a) SCP
b) SFTP
c) Rsync
d) All of the mentioned
Ans: d
257. Which one of the
following authentication method is used by SSH?
a) public-key
b) host based
c) password
d) all of the mentioned
a) public-key
b) host based
c) password
d) all of the mentioned
Ans: d
258. The attackers
a network of compromised devices known as
a) Internet
b) Botnet
c) Telnet
d) D-net
b) Botnet
c) Telnet
d) D-net
Ans: b
259. When the mail
server sends mail to other mail servers it becomes ____________
a) SMTP server
b) SMTP client
c) Peer
d) None of the mentioned
b) SMTP client
c) Peer
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: b
260. Expansion of
SMTP is
a) Simple Mail Transfer
Protocol
b) Simple Message Transfer Protocol
c) Simple Mail Transmission Protocol
d) Simple Message Transmission Protocol
b) Simple Message Transfer Protocol
c) Simple Mail Transmission Protocol
d) Simple Message Transmission Protocol
Ans: a
261. The underlying
Transport layer protocol used by SMTP is
a) TCP
b) UDP
c) Either TCP or UDP
d) None of the mentioned
a) TCP
b) UDP
c) Either TCP or UDP
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: a
262. Typically the TCP
port used by SMTP is
a) 25
b) 35
c) 50
d) 15
a) 25
b) 35
c) 50
d) 15
Ans: a
263. Network layer
firewall works as a
a) Frame filter
b) Packet filter
c) Both Frame as well as Packet filter
d) None of the mentioned
b) Packet filter
c) Both Frame as well as Packet filter
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: b
264. A firewall is
installed at the point where the secure internal network and untrusted external
network meet which is also known as __________
a) Chock point
b) Meeting point
c) Firewall point
d) Secure point
a) Chock point
b) Meeting point
c) Firewall point
d) Secure point
Ans: a
265. The protocol used
by Telnet application is
a) Telnet
b) FTP
c) HTTP
d) None of the mentioned
a) Telnet
b) FTP
c) HTTP
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: a
266. Telnet is a
a) Television on net
b) Network of Telephones
c) Remote Login
d) Teleshopping site
a) Television on net
b) Network of Telephones
c) Remote Login
d) Teleshopping site
Ans: c
267. Ping can
a) Measure round-trip time
b) Report packet loss
c) Report latency
d) All of the mentioned
a) Measure round-trip time
b) Report packet loss
c) Report latency
d) All of the mentioned
Ans: d
268. Ping sweep is a
part of
a) Traceroute
b) Nmap
c) Route
d) Ipconfig
a) Traceroute
b) Nmap
c) Route
d) Ipconfig
Ans: b
269. ICMP is used in
a) Ping
b) Traceroute
c) Ifconfig
d) Both Ping & Traceroute
a) Ping
b) Traceroute
c) Ifconfig
d) Both Ping & Traceroute
Ans:d
270. __________ command
is used to manipulate TCP/IP routing table.
a) route
b) Ipconfig
c) Ifconfig
d) Traceroute
a) route
b) Ipconfig
c) Ifconfig
d) Traceroute
Ans: a
271. If you want to find
the number of routers between a source and destination, the utility to be used
is.
a) route
b) Ipconfig
c) Ifconfig
d) Traceroute
a) route
b) Ipconfig
c) Ifconfig
d) Traceroute
Ans: d
272. In the layer
hierarchy as the data packet moves from the upper to the lower layers, headers
are
a) Added
b) Removed
c) Rearranged
d) Modified
a) Added
b) Removed
c) Rearranged
d) Modified
Ans: a
273. The structure or
format of data is called
a) Syntax
b) Semantics
c) Struct
d) None of the mentioned
a) Syntax
b) Semantics
c) Struct
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: a
274. The first
Network
a) CNNET
b) NSFNET
c) ASAPNET
d) ARPANET
b) NSFNET
c) ASAPNET
d) ARPANET
Ans: d
275. The _______ is the
physical path over which a message travels
a) Path
b) Medium
c) Protocol
d) Route
a) Path
b) Medium
c) Protocol
d) Route
Ans: b
276. Which of this
is not a network edge device?
a) PC
b) Smartphones
c) Servers
d) Switch
b) Smartphones
c) Servers
d) Switch
Ans: d
277. Ethernet
frame consists of
a) MAC address
b) IP address
c) both MAC address and IP address
d) none of the mentioned
b) IP address
c) both MAC address and IP address
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: a
278. MAC address is of
1) 24 bits
b) 36 bits
c) 42 bits
d) 48 bits
1) 24 bits
b) 36 bits
c) 42 bits
d) 48 bits
Ans: d
279. IP Address is of
1) 24 bits
b) 32 bits
c) 42 bits
d) 48 bits
b) 32 bits
c) 42 bits
d) 48 bits
Ans: b
280. High speed ethernet
works on
a) coaxial cable
b) twisted pair cable
c) optical fiber
d) none of the mentioned
b) twisted pair cable
c) optical fiber
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: c
281. Optical fibers for
communication use are mostly fabricated from
a) Plastic
b) Silica or multicomponent glass
c) Ceramics
d) Copper
a) Plastic
b) Silica or multicomponent glass
c) Ceramics
d) Copper
Ans: b
282. large boxes that
hold lots of hard disks
a) Host
b) Tape library
c) Switch
d) Disk Array
Ans: d
b) Tape library
c) Switch
d) Disk Array
Ans: d
283. This consists of
the precautions taken so that the effects of a disaster will be minimized.
a) Data retrieval
b) Disaster recovery
c) Archive
d) Replication
b) Disaster recovery
c) Archive
d) Replication
Ans: b
284. This is the
practice of collecting computer files that have been packaged together for
backup, to transport to some other location, for saving away from the computer
so that more hard disks can be made available, or for some other purpose.
a) Backup
b) Archive
c) Migration
d) Compression
a) Backup
b) Archive
c) Migration
d) Compression
Ans: b
285. The challenges for
data protection are
a) Taking care of the old data
b) Backing up the dynamic data
c) Restoring old data
d) All of the mentioned
a) Taking care of the old data
b) Backing up the dynamic data
c) Restoring old data
d) All of the mentioned
Ans: b
286. Name the mechanism
which provides the highest level of data protection
a) RAID 0
b) RAID 1
c) RAID 6
d) All of the mentioned
a) RAID 0
b) RAID 1
c) RAID 6
d) All of the mentioned
Ans: c
287. A NAS solution is
most appropriate for what type of data environment
a) Secured Access
b) Shared access
c) Remote access
d) Parallel access
a) Secured Access
b) Shared access
c) Remote access
d) Parallel access
Ans: b
288. Which three
statements describe differences between Storage Area Network (SAN) and Network
Attached Storage (NAS) solutions? Choose three.
i. SAN is generally more expensive but provides higher performance
ii. NAS uses TCP/IP for communication between hosts and the NAS server
iii. NAS requires additional hardware on a host: a host bus adapter for connectivity
iv. SAN uses proprietary protocols for communication between hosts and the SAN fabric
i. SAN is generally more expensive but provides higher performance
ii. NAS uses TCP/IP for communication between hosts and the NAS server
iii. NAS requires additional hardware on a host: a host bus adapter for connectivity
iv. SAN uses proprietary protocols for communication between hosts and the SAN fabric
a) i,ii, iii
b) i, ii, iv
c) ii, iii, iv
d) i, ii, iii
b) i, ii, iv
c) ii, iii, iv
d) i, ii, iii
Ans: b
289. Which topology is
best suited for medium sized enterprise.
a) NAS
b) SAN
c) DAS
d) None of the mentioned
a) NAS
b) SAN
c) DAS
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: a
290. Which of the
following is false with respect to UDP
a) Connection-oriented
b) Unreliable
c) Transport layer protocol
d) All of the mentioned
a) Connection-oriented
b) Unreliable
c) Transport layer protocol
d) All of the mentioned
Ans: a
291. The main advantage
of UDP is
a) More overload
b) Reliable
c) Less overload
d) Fast
a) More overload
b) Reliable
c) Less overload
d) Fast
Ans: c
292. what is the header
size of UDP packet?
a) 8 bytes
b) 8 bits
c) 16 bytes
d) 124 bytes
a) 8 bytes
b) 8 bits
c) 16 bytes
d) 124 bytes
Ans: a
293. IPSec is designed
to provide the security at the
a) transport layer
b) network layer
c) application layer
d) session layer
a) transport layer
b) network layer
c) application layer
d) session layer
Ans: b
294. Network layer
firewall works as a
a) frame filter
b) packet filter
c) both frame filter and packet filter
d) none of the mentioned
a) frame filter
b) packet filter
c) both frame filter and packet filter
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: b
295. WPA2 is used for
security in
a) ethernet
b) bluetooth
c) wi-fi
d) none of the mentioned
a) ethernet
b) bluetooth
c) wi-fi
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: c
296. An attempt to make
a computer resource unavailable to its intended users is called
a) denial-of-service attack
b) virus attack
c) worms attack
d) botnet process
b) virus attack
c) worms attack
d) botnet process
Ans: a
297. HTTP is ________
protocol.
a) Application layer
b) Transport layer
c) Network layer
d) None of the mentioned
a) Application layer
b) Transport layer
c) Network layer
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: a
298. SSH can be used in
only
a) unix-like operating systems
b) windows
c) both unix-like and windows systems
d) none of the mentioned
a) unix-like operating systems
b) windows
c) both unix-like and windows systems
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: c
299. Which is not a
TIER?
a) Tier i
b)Tier v
c) Tier iii
d) Tier iv
Ans: b
300. The network layer
concerns with
a) bits
b) frames
c) packets
d) none of the mentioned
a) bits
b) frames
c) packets
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: c
