Sunday, April 28, 2019

300 questions on Data Center Management with answers


Data Center Management

1.     _________ computing refers to applications and services that run on a distributed network using virtualized resources.
a) Distributed
b) Cloud
c) Soft
d) Parallel
Answer: b
2.     Which of the following is essential concept related to Cloud?
a) Reliability
b) Productivity
c) Abstraction
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
 3.      Explain different models for deployment in cloud computing?
The different deployment models in cloud computing are
a)      Private Cloud
b)      Public Cloud
c)      Community Cloud
d)      Hybrid Cloud
e)      All of above
Answer: e
4. What port is used for HTTPS?
 a)            443
b)            80
c)            23
d)            21
Answer: a
 5.      What is the security aspects provided with cloud?
a)      Identity management: It authorizes the application services
b)      Access control: permission has to be provided to the users so that they can control the access of another user who is entering into the cloud environment.
c)       Authentication and Authorization: Allows only the authorized and authenticated user only to access the data and applications
d)      All of above
Answer: d
 6.     Cloud computing is an abstraction based on the notion of pooling physical resources and presenting them as a ________ resource.
a) real
b) virtual
c) cloud
d) none of the mentioned
Answer b
7.   What is the requirement of virtualization platform in implementing cloud?
The requirement of virtualization platform in implementing cloud is to
a)      Manage the service level policies
b)      Cloud Operating System
c)       Virtualization platforms helps to keep the back-end level and user level concepts different from each other
d)            All of above
Answer: d
8.   Before going for cloud computing platform what are the essential things to be taken in concern by users?
a)      Compliance
b)      Loss of data
c)       Data storage
d)      Above of all
Answer: d
9.   Mention some open source cloud computing platform databases?
The open source cloud computing platform databases are
a)      MongoDB
b)      CouchDB
c)       LucidDB
d)      Above of all
Answer: d
10.   Mention the name of some large cloud providers and databases?
a)      Google bigtable
b)      Amazon simpleDB
c)       Cloud based SQL
d)      Above of all
Answer: d
 11.   Explain the difference between cloud and traditional datacenters?
a)      The cost of the traditional data center is higher due to heating and hardware/software issues
b)      Cloud gets scaled when the demand increases.  Majority of the expenses are spent on the maintenance of the data centers, while that is not the case with cloud computing
c)      Above of all
Answer: c
 12.   Which of the following is Cloud Platform by Amazon ?
a) Azure
b) AWS
c) Cloudera
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
 13.     Which of the following is owned by an organization selling cloud services ?
a) Public
b) Private
c) Community
d) Hybrid
Answer: a
 14.   _______ provides virtual machines, virtual storage, virtual infrastructure, and other hardware assets
a) IaaS
b) SaaS
c) PaaS
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
 15.  How many types of service model are mainly present in Cloud ?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: c
 16.   Which of the following is most important area of concern in cloud computing ?
a) Security
b) Storage
c) Scalability
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
 17.   What are the business benefits involved in cloud architecture?
The benefits involved in cloud architecture is
a)      Zero infrastructure investment
b)      Just in time infrastructure
c)       More efficient resource utilization
d)      Above of all
Answer: d
 18.   You can’t count on a cloud provider maintaining your _____ in the face of government actions.
a) scalability
b) reliability
c) privacy
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
 19.   Which of the following is deployment model ?
a) public
b) private
c) hybrid
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
20.   The ________ cloud infrastructure is operated for the exclusive use of an organization.
a) Public
b) Private
c) Community
d) All of the mentioned
Answer:b
 21.   List down the basic characteristics of cloud computing?
a)      Elasticity and Scalability
b)      Self-service provisioning and automatic de-provisioning
c)       Standardized interfaces
d)      Billing self service based usage model
e)      Above of all
Answer: e
 22.   __________ cloud is one where the cloud has been organized to serve a common function or purpose.
a) Public
b) Private
c) Community
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
23. What port is used for HTTP?
 a)            443
b)            80
c)            23
d)            21
Answer: b
24. Custom application development is generally done on which type of cloud service?
a) Infrastructure-as-a-Service (IaaS)
b) Software-as-a-Service (SaaS)
c) Platform-as-a-Service (PaaS)
d) Development-as-a-Service (DaaS)
Ans-C
25. In general, which type of cloud service provides the most areas of accountability for the customer?
a) Platform-as-a-Service (PaaS)
b) Security-as-a-Service
c) Infrastructure-as-a-Service (IaaS)
d) Software-as-a-Service (SaaS)
Ans-c
26.          Which of the following model allows vendor to provide security as part of the Service Level Agreement ?
a)SaaS
b)PaaS
c)IaaS
d)None Of these
 Ans-a
 27.          ________ describes a distribution model in which applications are hosted by a service provider and made available to users.
A. Infrastructure-as-a-Service (IaaS)
B. Platform-as-a-Service (PaaS)
C. Software-as-a-Service (SaaS)
D. Cloud service
Ans-c
28. To find the best security-as-a-service offering for your organization:
a) Ask the vendor what they recommend
b) Assess your requirements, do a risk assessment and a cost/benefit analysis of the options
c) Find the cheapest monthly option and use whatever is offered with that service
d) Ask your peers and do exactly what they're doing
Ans-b
29. Access to a Cloud environment always costs more money compared to a traditional desktop
a) True
b) False
Ans-b
30. A Cloud environment can be accessed from anywhere in the world as long as the user has access to the Internet
a) True
b) False
Ans-a
31.  What are the advantages of using cloud computing?
The advantages of using cloud computing are
a)      Data backup and storage of data
b)      Powerful server capabilities
c)       SaaS ( Software as a service)
d)      Information technology sandboxing capabilities
e)      Increase in productivity
f)       Cost effective & Time saving
Ans-all
32. _________ is the feature of cloud computing that allows the service to change in size or volume in order to meet a user’s needs.
A. Scalability
B. Virtualization
C. Security
D. Cost-savings
Ans-a
33.  Mention the services that are provided by Window Azure Operating System?
a)      Compute
b)      Storage
c)       Management
d)       Hardware service
ans-a,b,c
 34.   ________ describes a cloud service that can only be accessed by a limited amount of people.
A. Data center
B. Private cloud
C. Virtualization
D. Public cloud
ans- b
 35. List down the basic characteristics of cloud computing?
a)      Elasticity and Scalability
b)      Self-service provisioning and automatic de-provisioning
c)       Standardized interfaces
d)      Billing self-service based usage model
e)      All of above
ans- e
36. Mention some open source cloud computing platform databases?
The open source cloud computing platform databases are
a)      MongoDB
b)      CouchDB
c)       LucidDB
ans-all
 37. Before going for cloud computing platform what are the essential things to be taken in concern by users?
a)      Compliance
b)      Loss of data
c)       Data storage
d)      Business continuity
e)      Uptime
f)       Data integrity in cloud computing
ans-all
 38. What is the requirement of virtualization platform in implementing cloud?
The requirement of virtualization platform in implementing cloud is to
a)      Manage the service level policies
b)      Cloud Operating System
c)       Virtualization platforms helps to keep the backend level and user level concepts different from each other
ans-all
 39. Which are different models for deployment in cloud computing?
a)      Private Cloud
b)      Public Cloud
c)       Community Cloud
d)      Hybrid Cloud
ans-All
40. What are the advantages of using cloud computing?
The advantages of using cloud computing are
a)      Data backup and storage of data
b)      Powerful server capabilities
c)       SaaS ( Software as a service)
d)      Information technology sandboxing capabilities
e)      Increase in productivity
f)       Cost effective & Time saving
 ans-all
41. What are the benefits of cloud computing?
The main benefits of cloud computing are:
a) Data backup and storage of data.
b) Powerful server capabilities.
c) Incremented productivity.
d)Cost effective and time saving.
Ans-all
42. Give the best example for open source Cloud Computing.
a) OpenStack
b)  Windows stack
ans-a
43. Which of the following is not a cloud service model?
a)SaaS
b)PaaS
c)CaaS
d)IaaS
ans-c
 44. Which of the following is best known service model ?
a)SaaS
b)PaaS
c) IaaS
d) All of above
ans-d
 45. Which of the following cloud concept is related to pooling and sharing of resources ?
a)       Polymorphism
b)       Abstraction
c)       Virtualization
d)       None of the mentioned
 Ans-c
 46. Which Data Center is Fault Tolerance?
I.             Tier 1
II.            Tier 2
III.           Tier 3
IV.          Tier 4
Answer: IV
47. What is the full form of TIA?
I.             Telecommunications Industry Association
II.            Telnet Industry Association
III.           Telecom Industry Association
IV.          Tech Information Association
Answer: I (Telecommunications Industry Association)
 48. What is the full form of ANSI?
I.             American National Structured Institute
II.            American National Standards Institute
III.           American Narcotic Standards Institute
IV.          Associate National Standards Industry
Answer: II (American National Standards Institute)
49. The term ‘Tier’ was used in the ANSI/TIA-942 Standard until the ANSI/TIA-942: _________ edition?
I.             April-2015
II.            June-2016
III.           March-2014
IV.          May-2014
Answer: III (March-2014)
50. Tier II annual outage of up to?
I.             1 hours
II.            22 hours
III.           4 hours
IV.          11 hours
Answer: II (22 hours)
 51. Tier IV availability %?
I.             98.995%
II.            99.000%
III.           99.900%
IV.          99.995%
Answer: IV (99.995%)
52. DASD?
I.             Direct-Access Storage Device
II.            Data-Access Storage Device
III.           Direct-Access Storage Data
IV.          Direct-Access Structure Data
Answer: I (Direct- Access Storage Device)
53. For this Uptime Tier, critical power and cooling components -- not their delivery paths -- must be redundant.
I.             TIER I
II.            TIER II
III.          TIER III
IV.          TIER IV
 Answer: II (TIER II)
 54. This Uptime Tier DOES NOT requires redundant facility components.
I.             TIER I
II.            TIER II
III.           TIER III
IV.          TIER IV
 Answer: I (TIER I)
 55. Raised Floor System’s for 1000 to 5000 square feet?
I.             12 to 18 inches
II.            10 to 16 inches
III.           12 to 17 inches
IV.          11 to 18 inches
 Answer: I (12 to 18 inches)
 56. HVAC?
I.             Heating, ventilation, and air conditioning
II.            Health, ventilation, and air conditioning
III.           Heating, ventilation, and air cooler
IV.          Heat-ventilator, and air conditioning
 Answer: I (Heating, ventilation, and air conditioning)
57. UPS?
I.             Unorganized Power Supply
II.            Unite Power Supply
III.           Uninterruptible Power Solution
IV.          Uninterruptible Power Supply
 Answer: IV (Uninterruptible Power Supply)
 58. An average panel size?
I.             25" x 25"
II.            24" x 24"
III.          26" x 26"
IV.          28" x 28"
 Answer: II (24" x 24")
 59. Which of the following is not a benefit of server virtualization technology?
a) Agile capacity
b) More hardware
c) Expanded disaster recovery options
d) Better utilization of resources
Answer: b
 60. When implementing virtualization, a server must provide ample memory space for the ______.
a)Operating system
b)Hypervisor
c)Virtual machines on the server
d)All of the above
Answer: d
61. Which is not a Data center components
a) Cooling
b) RACK
c) Access Control
d) Storage
e) Printer
Answer: e
 62. What are the 3 key components of a physical infrastructure in a data center?
I.             Systems
II.            Connectivity
III.           Data
IV.          All of the above
 Answer: IV (All of the above)
 63. DCIE?
I.             Data Center Infrastructure Efficiency
II.            Data Center Intervention Efficiency
III.           Data Center Infrastructure Enterprise
IV.          Data Cloud Infrastructure Efficiency
 Answer: I (Data Center Infrastructure Efficiency)
64.          TIER III fault tolerant %?
I.             89.982%
II.            99.983%
III.           79.984%
IV.          99.999%
 Answer: I (99.982%)
 65.          The ANSI/TIA-942 specification references private and public domain data center requirements for applications and procedures such as:
I.             Network Architecture
II.            System Redundancy
III.           Network Access Control & Security
IV.          All of the above.

Answer: IV (All of the above)
66. How many area networks are there?
a) 2        
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Answer: b
 67. What is the full form of WAN?
a) World Area Network
b) Web Area Network
c) Wide Area Network
d) Wild Area Network
Answer: c
 68. How many main local area network topologies are there?
a) 5
b) 6
c) 4
d) 3
Answer: d
 69. Which one network topology?
a) Bus
b) Ring
c) Mesh
d) All of the above
Answer: d
 70. Which types of cable used in Star topology?
a) Coaxial
b) Twisted pair
c) Fiber optic
d) All of the above
Answer: d
 71. Which types of cabling used in Ring topology?
a) Coaxial or Fiber optic
b) Twisted pair or Fiber optic
c) Coaxial or Twisted pair
d) All of the above
Answer: b
 72. What is full form of MAC?
a) Media Advanced Control
b) Media Access Control
c) Multi Access Control
d) Mid Access Control
Answer: b
 73. Which one wireless topologies?
a) Ad hoc
b) Infrastructure
c) Both a & b
d) None of the above
Answer: c
 74. How many types cable are used in LAN?
a) 2        
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Answer: b
 75. How many types wiring are there?
a) 2        
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Answer: a
 76. Which topology used to use baseband signaling method?
a) Bus   
b) Star
c) Ring
d) All of the above
Answer: d
 77. What is full form of AUI?
a) Attach Unit Interface
b) Attachment Unit Interface
c) Anti-attach Unit Interface
d) Advance Unit Interface
Answer: b
 78. What is full form of UTP cable?
a) Unit Twisted Pair
b) Unshielded Twisted Pair
c) Unit-shielded Twisted Pair
d) None of the above
Answer: b
 79. Which cable used in LAN?
a) Coaxial
b) Twisted pair
c) Fiber optic
d) All of the above
Answer: d
 80. Which topology requires an enormous amount of cable?
a) Bus
b) Ring
c) Mesh
d) All of the above
Answer: c
 81. What is the full form of LAN?
a) Land Area Network
b) Long Area Network
c) Local Area Network
d) None of the above
Answer: c
 82. What is the full form of MAN?
a) Metro Area Network
b) Metropolitan Area Network
c) Both a & b
d) None of the above
Answer: b
 83. Segments are connected by.................?
a) Consoles
b) Repeaters
c) Hubs
d) None of the above
Answer: b
 84. Which topology supports baseband and broadband signals?
a) Bus
b) Ring
c) Mesh
d) None
Answer: c
 85. Which one is topology below here?
a) Bus
b) Ring
c) Mesh
d) All of the above
Answer: d
86. Consists of the hardware in a biometric device that converts biometric input into electrical signals and conveys this information to the attached computer, such as a fingerprint sensor.
a)            Arch
b)            Sensor
c)            Identity
d)            Mimic
Answer: b
 87. A method of biometric identification and pattern recognition that is used to determine the identity of the subject.
 a)            Ridge Ending
b)            Iris recognition
c)            Iris Scanning
d)            Live Scan
Answer: b
 88. All but one of the following is examples of two-factor authentication. Which of these is the odd one out, because it does not involve two factors?
a)            A VPN token and password
b)            Entering your password twice
c)            The chip and PIN on a bank card
d)            A hardware security token and password
Answer: b
 89. A method that uses two independent pieces/processes of information to identify a user is known as…
a)            Authentication through encryption
b)            Password-method authentication
c)            Two-method authentication
d)            Two-factor authentication
Answer: d
  90. Authentication is
a)            Restrictions on who (or what) can access system
b)            Process by which you verify that someone is who they claim they are
c)            Finding out if the person, once identified, is permitted to have the resource.
d)            a, b, and c
Answer: d
 91. Inference control is a mechanism to confine the information content of data or behaviour made accessible to or being observable by a participant to whom some piece(s) of information should be kept confidential.
 a)            True
b)            False
Answer: a
92. A CAPTCHA is an acronym for "completely automated public Turing test to tell computers and humans apart") is a type of challenge–response test used in computing to determine whether or not the user is human. The common form of CAPTCHA is:
 a)            Audio
b)            Visual
c)            Text
d)            All of The Above
Answer: d
 93. Firewall must determine what to let in to internal network and/or what to let out
 a)            As CEO
b)            As Secretary
c)            As MD
d)            As Prime Minister
Answer: b
 94. How to authenticate a human to a machine?
 a)            Password
b)            Smartcard
c)            Fingerprint
d)            All of The Above
Answer: d
 95. Password acts as!
a)            PIN
b)            Social security number
c)            Mother’s maiden name
d)            All of The Above
Answer: d
 96. SPSE key is _______ keys and _______ bits.
 a)            Crypto, 64
b)            Crypto, 61
c)            Cyber ton, 63
d)            Passkey, 62
Answer: a
 97. Which one is true?
a)            SPSE passwords are 6 characters and 250 different characters.
b)            SPSE passwords are 7 characters and 256 different characters.
c)            SPSE passwords are 8 characters and 256 different characters.
d)            SPSE passwords are 6 characters and 290 different characters.
Answer: c
 98. Which attack is quite common?
 a)            Dictionary attack
b)            Dictator attack
c)            Durable attack
d)            Device attack
Answer: a
 99. Which password will be considered as strong password?
 a)            POkem0N09
b)            4444
c)            102560
d)            AustinStamp
Answer: a
 100. Which one is a bad password?
 a)            09864376537263
b)            Fsa7YagO
c)            PokEGCTall150
d)            Fido
Answer: d
 101. What is the percentage of the chance of easy to crack password.
 a)            30%
b)            40%
c)            50%
d)            60%
Answer: a
 102. Which are the popular password cracking tools?
 a)            Password Crackers
b)            Password nutshell
c)            John the Ripper (Unix)
d)            a and c
Answer: d
 103. Intrusion prevention is a traditional focus of computer security
a)            Authentication is to prevent intrusions
b)            Firewalls a form of intrusion prevention
c)            Virus defences also intrusion prevention
d)            All of the above
Answer: d


104. What do intruders do?
a)            Launch well-known antivirus
b)            Launch new or little-known attacks
c)            Use a system to attack other systems
d)            b and c

  Answer: d
 105. Intrusion detection systems (IDS) scans for

a)            unusual activity
b)            day to day activity
c)            system loopholes
d)            files anomaly
     Answer: a
106. Which Component is most vital of a Colocation Data Center?                            

 ¨ Space                              ¨ Raise Floor          þ Power           ¨ Rack          

 107. The lifetime of Telco/Electric devices depend upon;   

þ Proper Temperature                                 ¨ Lighting system         ¨ Fire Protection           ¨ None of them
           

108. Major Consideration of Load calculation (Power);

¨ No of Rack                     ¨ Space          ¨ No of Light          þ Devices per rack, Total Racks & Space
                               
109. Availability of Tier-4 Data Center;

þ   99.995%         ¨ 99.982%           ¨          99.74%                  ¨ 99.67%
                                               
110. Continuous Cooling requirements in

¨  Tier-1 DC                       ¨ Tier-2 DC                        ¨ Tier-3 DC        þ Tier-4 DC
               
111. As per Gatner Report, Average Power load per rack;

þ 4 KW                ¨ 6 KW                ¨ 10 KW                              ¨ None of above
112. Detail of the power usage pattern in the data center:

                ¨ Power (AC)                   ¨ Power (DC)                   ¨ UPS/Inverter                                ¨ Generator    þ All of above
113. Generally Cooling System in a data center;

                 ¨ PAC            ¨ Free Cooling                       ¨ Chiller                             þ All of above
               
114. What is the Energy Factor for HVAC?

                þ 60%                    ¨ 50%                ¨ 40%                  ¨ 80% 
               
115. Which is not the power component?

                ¨ UPS                  ¨ PDF                   ¨ Substation                     þ  ODF/DDF
116. OPEX (mainly) of a data center depends upon;
                ¨ Load usage & Cost per KWh   ¨ Salary and Wages       ¨  Rent & office maintenance  þ All of above
                                               
117. Please select the relationship between Heat and Power

þ Watt—BTU/hr—Tons                               ¨ KWh—Tons--- BTU/hr   ¨ Tons—Kw--- BTU/hr   ¨ None of above
               
118. DRS is Needed for Redundancy?

                þ Yes                    ¨ No                    
119.  Single Mode Fibre transmits signals over long distances by carrying light.
a. True     b. False
Ans: a
120.  Where Single-mode fibre optic cables are utilized?
a. Lower bandwidth applications    b. Higher bandwidth applications
c. Both                                                  d. None of these
Ans: b
 121.  Single-mode fibre has small core size of –
a. 7 microns                                          b. 8 microns
c. 9 microns                                           d. 10 microns
Ans: c
122. At which Wavelength the single-mode fibers in telecommunication cables operate?
a. 1210 or 1450 nm                              b. 1310 or 1450 nm
c. 1310 or 1550 nm                              d. 1410 or 1650 nm
Ans: c
123. Maximum bandwidths and corresponding distances for single-mode are: 80 km for 10-gigabit Ethernet at 1310nm and 200km at 1550nm.
a. True                                                        b. False
Ans: b
 124. Which fibre is recommended for Gigabit Ethernet?
a. Single-mode                                           b. Multi-mode
c. Optical                                                     d. None of These
Ans: a
125.  What is the color of jacket for OM1?
a. Red                                                            b. Blue
c. Aqua                                                          d. Orange
Ans: d
126. What is the data rate for OM1?
a. 2GB @ 850nm                                              b. 1GB @ 550nm
c. 1GB @ 850nm                                              d. 2GB @ 950nm
Ans: c
 127. The core size of OM2-
a. 40um                                                       b. 50um
c. 60um                                                       d. 70um
Ans: b
128. The distance coverage by OM2 is up to 700 meters.
a. True                                                         b. False
Ans: b
129. The Data rate for OM3- Laser-Optimized Multimode-
a. 10GB @ 850nm                                         b. 5GB @ 850nm
c. 8GB @ 850nm                                              d. 3GB @ 850nm
Ans: a
130. OM3 Able to run 40GB or 100GB up to 100 meters utilizing a MPO connector.
a. True                                                              b. False
Ans: a
131. What is the color of jacket for OM3?
a. Red                                                            b. Blue
c. Aqua                                                          d. Orange
Ans: c
132. Nodes are another name of
a)Devices
b)Links
c)Medium
d)Modes
Ans: a
 133. OM4 fibre is not used in where?
a. Data Centers                                                    b. Financial Centers
c. Corporate Campuses                                       d. None of These   
Ans: d       
134. OM5 fibre specifies a wider range of wavelengths between 800nm and 993nm.
a. True                                                                 b. False
Ans: b
135. Why OM5 fibre is better than OM4 fibre?
a. Transmission distance                                       b. Speed
c. Cost                                                                    d. All of the above
Ans: d
136. Official cable jacket color for OM5-
a. Red                                                     b. Lime Green
c. Orange                                                d. Aqua
Ans: b
137. OM1 and OM2 fibres can not support 25Gbps and 40 Gbps data transmission.
a. True                                                    b. False
Ans: a
138.  OM5 is designed to reduce fibre counts for high speed transmission.
a. True                                                      b. False
Ans:a
139. What is PDU in power?
a)Project distribution unit
b)Power district unit
c)Power distribution unit
d)None
 Ans: c
 140. An average data center consumes over 100x the power of a large commercial office building,  True or False.
Ans: True
141. How much global electricity consume by Data Center’s?
a)            2.5%%
b)            3%
c)            3.5%
d)            4%
 Ans: b
 142. DR Means?
a) Disaster Recovery
b) Data Recovery
c) Disaster Replace
d) Data Reset
 Ans: a
 143. 40% of the total operational costs for a data center come from the energy, True or False.
 Ans: true
 144. Which is not a Operatin System?
a)            Linux
b)            Windos
c)            IOS
d)            Microsoft Word
 Ans: d
145. What is not needed for ‘tier I, II '  data centers?
a)            Dual-power source        
b)            Cooling system
c)            Dual  IT equipment
d)            Disaster Recovery
Ans: Disaster Recovery
 146. What is the redundant rate of ‘tier III’ data center?
a)            99.971%
b)            99.941%
c)            99.982%
d)            99.995%
Ans: c
 147. What is Data Center Risk Factor?
a)            Natural disaster
b)            Human caused
c)            Climate
d)            Civil Disruptions
 Ans: All
 148. Google goal is powered its data centers by 100 percent renewable energy, True or False.
Ans: True
149. Google use water to cooling its data centers, Ture or False.
150. Which is not Data Centre Certification Body?
a)            ANSI/BICSI 002-2014
b)            The Green Grid
c)            BSTI
d)            TIA-942
Ans: c
151. How many Tiers of data are there?
a)            3
b)            4
c)            5
d)            6
Ans: b
152. Disaster Recovery is the most important part of ‘tier I’  data center, True or False.
 Ans: False
 153. ‘Tier III’ data center needed dual power source, True or False.
Ans: true
 154. What is facility Risk Factor?
a)            Supplier outages
b)            Natural disasters
c)            Human Caused
d)            Power
 Ans: d
 155. The Green Grid is profitable organization, True or False.
Ans: True

156. What is External Risk Factor?
a)            Water
b)            Natural disasters
c)            Fire
d)            Power
Ans: b
157. What is Data System Risk Factor?
a)            Viruses
b)            Natural disasters
c)            Fire
d)            Power
 Ans: a
 158. In ‘tier IV’ data center all cooling equipment is independently single powered; adds Fault-tolerance (99.995%, 26 minutes), True or False
Ans: False
 159. CIA Stands For
a) Confidentiality, Integer, Accounting
b) Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
c)  Confidence, Integer, Availability
d) Confidentiality, Integer, Availability
Ans: b
 160. What is DoS Attack?
a) Distributed of Service
b) Denial of Service
c) District of Service
d) Divide of Service
Ans: b
161. To hide information inside a picture, what technology is used?
a) Rootkits
b) Bitmapping
c) Steganography
d) Image Rendering
Ans: c
162. What is the purpose of a Denial of Service attack?
a) Exploit a weakness in the TCP/IP stack
b) To execute a Trojan on a system
c) To overload a system so it is no longer operational
d) To shutdown services by turning them off
Ans: c
163. What is the sequence of a TCP connection?
a) SYN-ACK-FIN
b) SYN-SYN ACK-ACK
c) SYN-ACK
d) SYN-SYN-ACK
Ans: b
164. Why would a ping sweep be used?
a) To identify live systems
b) To locate live systems
c) To identify open ports
d) To locate firewalls
Ans: a
165. What port does Telnet use?
a) 22
b) 80
c) 20
d) 23
Ans: d
166. What is the most important activity in system hacking?
a) Information gathering
b) Cracking passwords
c) Escalating privileges
d) Covering tracks
Ans: b
167. What protocol is the Active Directory database based on?
a) LDAP
b) TCP
c) SQL
d) HTTP
Ans: a
168. Services running on a system are determined by _____________.
a) The system’s IP address.
b) The Active Directory
c) The system’s network name
d) The port assigned
Ans: d
169. Keyloggers are a form of ______________.
a) Spyware
b) Shoulder surfing
c) Trojan
d) Social engineering
Ans:a
170. What is the best statement for taking advantage of a weakness in the security of an IT system?
a) Threat
b) Attack
c) Exploit
d) Vulnerability
Ans: c
 171. BIA Means?
a) Business Impact Analysis
b) Business Integrity Analyst
c) Business Impact Analyst
d) Business Import Analyst
Ans: a
172. Which are BCP steps?
a) Risk Analysis
b) BIA
c) Plan
d) Training, Testing, Auding
e) All of above
Ans: e
173. Which two of the following statements are true about a switch? (choose two)
a) It is a repeater.
b) It is a data link layer device.
c) It will forward the frame out all ports when it receives a broadcast from a host.
d) It reads the destination Mac address to forward traffic out the appropriate port.
e. It acts as an amplifier.
ans: b,d
 174. Which of the following best describes the cable that is used to connect a laptop to an Ethernet port on a
cisco router?
a) crossover
b) Straight-through
c) Fiber
d) Rollover
ans: a
175. Which type of cable used on the ATM card?
a) Fiber-optic
b) coaxial
c) Serial
d) crossover
Ans: a
176. For which type of connection should a straight-through cable be used?
a) switch to switch
b) switch to hub
c) switch to router
d) hub to hub
E) router to Pc
ans: c
177. Which type of cable is used to connect the cOM port of a host to the cOM port of a router or switch?
a) crossover
b) straight-through
c) rolled
d) shielded twisted-pair
ans: c
178. The speed of Ethernet is
a) 64 Kbps
b) 64 Mbps
c) 10 Kbps
d) 10 Mbps
ans: d
179. With which of the following characteristics, the design issues of a physical layer deals ?
a) Mechanical
b) Electrical
c) Functional
d) all of above
ans: d
180.  Data which is routed between networks or from node to node within networks requires only the functions of OSI
a ) Layers 1 and 2
b) Layers 1 through 3
c) all layers
d) None of the above
ans: b
181. A device operating at the network layer is called a
a)Bridge
b)Router
c)Repeater
d)None of the above
Ans: b
 182. Usually traffic in a network is measured by
a)blocking probabilities
b)grade of service
c)relative congestion
d)erlangs
Ans: c
 183. ___________ are rules that govern a communication exchange.
a)Media
b)Interfaces
c)Protocols
d)All of the above
Ans: c
184. Which of the following OS is not based on Linux?
a)Ubuntu
b)Redhat
c)CentOs
d)BSD
 Ans: d
 185. Maximum how long can a Linux filename be?
a)128 bytes
b)255 bytes
c)32 bytes
d)64 bytes
Ans: b
 186. Which command(s) is/are used to get help about a command in Linux?
a)info
b)man
c)None of these
d)Both a and b
 Ans: d
187. Which of the following OS is not based on Linux?
 a)Ubuntu
b)Redhat
c)CentOs
d)BSD
Ans:d
 188. Which command is used to get the kernel version in Linux?
 a)uname -r
b)kernel
c)uname -n
d)uname -s
Ans:a
 189. Which command is used to list all the files ?
 a)ls
b)rm -r
c)list
d)lis
 190. Which command is used for showing current directory?
 a)ls
b)cp
c)pwd
d)cd
 Ans: c
 191. Which command  is/are used to remove directory in Linux?
a)rmdir
b)rm -r
c)pwd
d)both a & b
 Ans: d
 192. Which of the following command is used to create file in Linux?
a)touch
b)cat
c)echo
d)All of the above
 Ans:d
 193. In Linux everything stored as a
 a)file
b)directory
c)executables
d)None of the above
 Ans:a
194. Which command is used to display the operating system name?
a) os
b) unix
c) kernel
d) uname
Ans: d
195. The permission –rwx-r–r– represented in octal expression will be
a) 777
b) 666
c) 744
d) 711
Ans: c
196. Which of these is not a Unix Flavor?
a) BSD
b) MAC
c) AIX
d) IRIX
Ans: b
197. Which of the following UNIX flavor is from IBM?
a) BSD
b) Solaris
c) HP-UX
d) AIX
Ans: d
 198. Which among the following is used to write small programs to control Unix functionalities?
a) Shell Commands
b) Shell Script
c) Filters
d) C Language
Ans: b
199. Command used to count number of character in a file is
a) grep
b) wc
c) count
d) cut
Ans: wc
 200. Which of the following commands can be used to copy files across systems?
a) ssh
b) telnet
c) rsh
d) ftp
Ans: d
 201. Which Protocol is vulnerable?
a)telnet
b)ssh
c)sftp
d) all of above
Ans: a
 202. Which of the following commands will allow the user to search contents of a file for a particular pattern
a) touch
b) grep
c) find
d) ls
Ans: b
 203. FTP means?
a) File Transfer Person
b) File Transit Parameter
c) File Transfer Protocol
d) None
Ans: c
 204. A program that can retrieve files from the world wide web and render text, images or sounds encoded in the files.
a) Browser
b) Internet
c) Server
d) Web Server
Ans: a
205. Which of the following is not a type of browser?
a) Netscape
b) Web
c) IE
d) Mozilla
Ans: b
 206. Both client and server release _________ connection after a page has been transferred.
a) IP
b) TCP
c) Hyperlink
d) Network
Ans: b
 207. The web works on this model.
a) Intranet
b) Internet
c) Client-Server
d) Server
Ans: c
208. In the Client-server model, the client receives a request from the server.
a) True
b) False
Ans: b
209. Which of the following is not a type of server?
a) File
b) Web
c) Name
d) Browsers
Ans: d
 210. Apache is a type of ________
a) Transmission control program
b) Web Server
c) Web Browser
d) DBMS
 Ans: b
 211. Any computer that can access the server is called?
a) Web Server
b) Web Browser
c) User
d) Web Client
Ans: d
 212. Bus is a type of topology.
a) True
b) False
Ans: a
 213. _____ LAN topology describes the possible connections between pairs of networked end-points that can communicate.
a) Complex
b) Physical
c) Logical
d) Incremental
Ans: c
 214. A term that refers to the way in which the nodes of a network are linked together.
a) network
b) topology
c) connection
d) interconnectivity
Ans: b
 215. A network comprising o multiple topologies.
a) Complex
b) Hybrid
c) Bus
d) Star
Ans: b
 216. he participating computers in a network are referred to as:
a) Clients
b) Servers
c) Nodes
d) CPUs
Ans: c
 217. A ____________WAN can be developed using leased private lines or any other transmission facility
a) Hybrids
b) peer-to-peer
c) Two-tiered
d) Three-tiered
Ans: b
 218. A serially connected system of all the hubs of networks.
a) Bus
b) Ring
c) Daisy chains
d) Star
Ans: c
 219. Plain text is the data after encryption is performed.
a) True
b) False
Ans: b
 220. A unique piece of information that is used in encryption.
a) Cipher
b) Plain Text
c) Key
d) Cipher
Ans: c
221. Study of creation of encryption and decryption techniques.
a) Cipher
b) Cryptography
c) Encryption
d) Decryption
Ans: b
 222. A malicious code hidden inside a seemingly harmless piece of code.
a) Worm
b) Bomb
c) Trojan Horse
d) Virus
Ans: c
 223. Attack in which a user creates a packet that appears to be something else.
a) Smurfing
b) Trojan
c) E-mail bombing
d) Spoofing
Ans: d
224. An attack in which the user receives unwanted amount of e-mails.
a) Smurfing
b) Denial of service
c) E-mail bombing
d) Ping storm
Ans: c
 225. Network Security provides authentication and access control for resources.
a) True
b) False
Ans: a
 226. Which is not an objective of network security?
a) Identification
b) Authentication
c) Access control
d) Lock
Ans: d
 227. The process of verifying the identity of a user.
a) Authentication
b) Identification
c) Validation
d) Verification
Ans: a
 228. A concern of authentication that deals with user rights.
a) General access
b) Functional authentication
c) Functional authorization
d) Auto verification
Ans: c
229. Security features that control that can access resources in the OS.
a) Authentication
b) Identification
c) Validation
d) Access control
Ans: d
230. An algorithm in encryption is called _____________
a) Algorithm
b) Procedure
c) Cipher
d) Module
Ans: c
 231. The information that gets transformed in encryption is ____________
a) Plain text
b) Parallel text
c) Encrypted text
d) Decrypted text
Ans: a
 232. ________________ is a paradigm of distributed computing to provide the customers on-demand, utility based computing service.
a) Remote Sensing
b) Remote Invocation
c) Cloud Computing
d) Private Computing
Ans: c
 233. Cloud providers provide cloud services to the cloud users.
a) True
b) False
Ans: a
 234. Which of the following is not a cloud stakeholder?
a) Cloud providers
b) Clients
c) End users
d) Cloud users
Ans: b
 235. These cloud services are of the form of utility computing i.e. the _________ uses these services pay-as-you-go model.
a) Cloud providers
b) Clients
c) End users
d) Cloud users
Ans: d
236. Which of the following is not a type of cloud?
a) Private
b) Public
c) Protected
d) Hybrid
Ans: c
237. In this type of cloud, an organization rents cloud services from cloud providers on-demand basis.
a) Private
b) Public
c) Protected
d) Hybrid
Ans: b
 238. In this type of cloud, the cloud is composed of multiple internal or external cloud.
a) Private
b) Public
c) Protected
d) Hybrid
Ans:d
 239. _____________ enables the migration of the virtual image from one physical machine to another.
a) visualization
b) virtualization
c) migration
d) virtual transfer
Ans: b
240. Most of the cloud architectures are built on this type of architecture.
a) skeleton
b) grid
c) linear
d) template
Ans: b
241. Saas stands for?
a) Software as a service
b) System Software and services
c) Software as a system
d) System as a service
Ans: a
242. Paas stands for
a)Platform as system
b)Platform as Software
c) Platform as a Service
d) None
Ans: c
243. A plug and play storage device that simply plugs in the port of a computer is __________
a) Flash drive
b) Compact disk
c) Hard disk
d) CD
Ans: a
244. A device similar to a flash drive ______________
a) Memory card
b) Compact drive
c) Compact disk
d) Memory disk
Ans: a
245. What does RAID stand for?
a) Redundant array of independent disks
b) Redundant array of inexpensive disks
c) Redundant array of intermediate disks
d) Redundant array of improper disks
Ans: b
246. The _____ is something that you can obtain under contract from your vendor.
a) PoS
b) QoS
c) SoS
d) All of the mentioned
Ans: b
247. Cloud computing is a _______ system and it is necessarily unidirectional in nature.
a) stateless
b) stateful
c) reliable
d) all of the mentioned
Ans: a
248. Which of the following is a compliance standard?
a) PCI-DSS
b) HIPPA
c) GLBA
d) All of the mentioned
Ans: d
249. Which of the following is a common means for losing encrypted data?
a) lose the keys
b) lose the encryption standard
c) lose the account
d) all of the mentioned
Ans: a
250. Which of the following is one of the most actively developing and important areas of cloud computing technology?
a) Logging
b) Auditing
c) Regulatory compliance
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: c
251. Secure shell (SSH) network protocol is used for
a) secure data communication
b) remote command-line login
c) remote command execution
d) all of the mentioned
Ans: d
252. SSH can be used in only
a) unix-like operating systems
b) windows
c) both unix-like and windows systems
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: c
253. SSH uses ___________ to authenticate the remote computer.
a) public-key cryptography
b) private-key cryptography
c) any of public-key or private-key
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: a
254. Which standard TCP port is assigned for contacting SSH servers?
a) port 21
b) port 22
c) port 23
d) port 24
Ans: b
255. Which one of the following protocol can be used for login to a shell on a remote host except SSH?
a) telnet
b) rlogin
c) both telnet and rlogin
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: c
256. Which one of the following is a file transfer protocol using SSH?
a) SCP
b) SFTP
c) Rsync
d) All of the mentioned
Ans: d
257. Which one of the following authentication method is used by SSH?
a) public-key
b) host based
c) password
d) all of the mentioned
Ans: d
 258. The attackers a network of compromised devices known as
a) Internet
b) Botnet
c) Telnet
d) D-net
Ans: b
 259. When the mail server sends mail to other mail servers it becomes ____________
a) SMTP server
b) SMTP client
c) Peer
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: b
 260. Expansion of SMTP is
a) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
b) Simple Message Transfer Protocol
c) Simple Mail Transmission Protocol
d) Simple Message Transmission Protocol
Ans: a
261. The underlying Transport layer protocol used by SMTP is
a) TCP
b) UDP
c) Either TCP or UDP
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: a
262. Typically the TCP port used by SMTP is
a) 25
b) 35
c) 50
d) 15
Ans: a
 263. Network layer firewall works as a
a) Frame filter
b) Packet filter
c) Both Frame as well as Packet filter
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: b
264. A firewall is installed at the point where the secure internal network and untrusted external network meet which is also known as __________
a) Chock point
b) Meeting point
c) Firewall point
d) Secure point
Ans: a
265. The protocol used by Telnet application is
a) Telnet
b) FTP
c) HTTP
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: a
266. Telnet is a
a) Television on net
b) Network of Telephones
c) Remote Login
d) Teleshopping site
Ans: c
267. Ping can
a) Measure round-trip time
b) Report packet loss
c) Report latency
d) All of the mentioned
Ans: d
268. Ping sweep is a part of
a) Traceroute
b) Nmap
c) Route
d) Ipconfig
Ans: b
269. ICMP is used in
a) Ping
b) Traceroute
c) Ifconfig
d) Both Ping & Traceroute
Ans:d
270. __________ command is used to manipulate TCP/IP routing table.
a) route
b) Ipconfig
c) Ifconfig
d) Traceroute
Ans: a
271. If you want to find the number of routers between a source and destination, the utility to be used is.
a) route
b) Ipconfig
c) Ifconfig
d) Traceroute
Ans: d
272. In the layer hierarchy as the data packet moves from the upper to the lower layers, headers are
a) Added
b) Removed
c) Rearranged
d) Modified
Ans: a
273. The structure or format of data is called
a) Syntax
b) Semantics
c) Struct
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: a
 274. The first Network
a) CNNET
b) NSFNET
c) ASAPNET
d) ARPANET
Ans: d
275. The _______ is the physical path over which a message travels
a) Path
b) Medium
c) Protocol
d) Route
Ans: b
 276. Which of this is not a network edge device?
a) PC
b) Smartphones
c) Servers
d) Switch
Ans: d
 277. Ethernet frame consists of
a) MAC address
b) IP address
c) both MAC address and IP address
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: a
278. MAC address is of
1) 24 bits
b) 36 bits
c) 42 bits
d) 48 bits
Ans: d
279. IP Address is of
1) 24 bits
b) 32 bits
c) 42 bits
d) 48 bits
Ans: b
 280. High speed ethernet works on
a) coaxial cable
b) twisted pair cable
c) optical fiber
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: c
281. Optical fibers for communication use are mostly fabricated from
a) Plastic
b) Silica or multicomponent glass
c) Ceramics
d) Copper
Ans: b
 282. large boxes that hold lots of hard disks
a) Host
b) Tape library
c) Switch
d) Disk Array
Ans: d
 283. This consists of the precautions taken so that the effects of a disaster will be minimized.
a) Data retrieval
b) Disaster recovery
c) Archive
d) Replication
Ans: b
284. This is the practice of collecting computer files that have been packaged together for backup, to transport to some other location, for saving away from the computer so that more hard disks can be made available, or for some other purpose.
a) Backup
b) Archive
c) Migration
d) Compression
Ans: b
285. The challenges for data protection are
a) Taking care of the old data
b) Backing up the dynamic data
c) Restoring old data
d) All of the mentioned
Ans: b
286. Name the mechanism which provides the highest level of data protection
a) RAID 0
b) RAID 1
c) RAID 6
d) All of the mentioned
Ans: c
287. A NAS solution is most appropriate for what type of data environment
a) Secured Access
b) Shared access
c) Remote access
d) Parallel access
Ans: b
288. Which three statements describe differences between Storage Area Network (SAN) and Network Attached Storage (NAS) solutions? Choose three.
i. SAN is generally more expensive but provides higher performance
ii. NAS uses TCP/IP for communication between hosts and the NAS server
iii. NAS requires additional hardware on a host: a host bus adapter for connectivity
iv. SAN uses proprietary protocols for communication between hosts and the SAN fabric
a) i,ii, iii
b) i, ii, iv
c) ii, iii, iv
d) i, ii, iii
Ans: b
289. Which topology is best suited for medium sized enterprise.
a) NAS
b) SAN
c) DAS
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: a
290. Which of the following is false with respect to UDP
a) Connection-oriented
b) Unreliable
c) Transport layer protocol
d) All of the mentioned
Ans: a
291. The main advantage of UDP is
a) More overload
b) Reliable
c) Less overload
d) Fast
Ans: c
292. what is the header size of UDP packet?
a) 8 bytes
b) 8 bits
c) 16 bytes
d) 124 bytes
Ans: a
293. IPSec is designed to provide the security at the
a) transport layer
b) network layer
c) application layer
d) session layer
Ans: b
294. Network layer firewall works as a
a) frame filter
b) packet filter
c) both frame filter and packet filter
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: b
295. WPA2 is used for security in
a) ethernet
b) bluetooth
c) wi-fi
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: c
 296. An attempt to make a computer resource unavailable to its intended users is called
a) denial-of-service attack
b) virus attack
c) worms attack
d) botnet process
Ans: a
297. HTTP is ________ protocol.
a) Application layer
b) Transport layer
c) Network layer
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: a
298. SSH can be used in only
a) unix-like operating systems
b) windows
c) both unix-like and windows systems
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: c
299. Which is not a TIER?
a) Tier i
b)Tier v
c) Tier iii
d) Tier iv
Ans: b
300. The network layer concerns with
a) bits
b) frames
c) packets
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: c







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