Pinak's Titan: 2019

Data Center Management

1. _________ computing refers to applications and services that run on a distributed network using virtualized resources.
a) Distributed
b) Cloud
c) Soft
d) Parallel

Answer: b

2. Which of the following is essential concept related to Cloud?
a) Reliability
b) Productivity
c) Abstraction
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: c

3. Explain different models for deployment in cloud computing?

The different deployment models in cloud computing are

a) Private Cloud

b) Public Cloud

c) Community Cloud

d) Hybrid Cloud

e) All of above

Answer: e

4. What port is used for HTTPS?

a) 443

b) 80

c) 23

d) 21

Answer: a

5. What is the security aspects provided with cloud?

a) Identity management: It authorizes the application services

b) Access control: permission has to be provided to the users so that they can control the access of another user who is entering into the cloud environment.

c) Authentication and Authorization: Allows only the authorized and authenticated user only to access the data and applications

d) All of above

Answer: d

6. Cloud computing is an abstraction based on the notion of pooling physical resources and presenting them as a ________ resource.

a) real
b) virtual
c) cloud
d) none of the mentioned

Answer b

7. What is the requirement of virtualization platform in implementing cloud?

The requirement of virtualization platform in implementing cloud is to

a) Manage the service level policies

b) Cloud Operating System

c) Virtualization platforms helps to keep the back-end level and user level concepts different from each other

d) All of above

Answer: d

8. Before going for cloud computing platform what are the essential things to be taken in concern by users?

a) Compliance

b) Loss of data

c) Data storage

d) Above of all

Answer: d

9. Mention some open source cloud computing platform databases?

The open source cloud computing platform databases are

a) MongoDB

b) CouchDB

c) LucidDB

d) Above of all

Answer: d

10. Mention the name of some large cloud providers and databases?

a) Google bigtable

b) Amazon simpleDB

c) Cloud based SQL

d) Above of all

Answer: d

11. Explain the difference between cloud and traditional datacenters?

a) The cost of the traditional data center is higher due to heating and hardware/software issues

b) Cloud gets scaled when the demand increases. Majority of the expenses are spent on the maintenance of the data centers, while that is not the case with cloud computing

c) Above of all

Answer: c

12. Which of the following is Cloud Platform by Amazon ?

a) Azure
b) AWS
c) Cloudera
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: b

13. Which of the following is owned by an organization selling cloud services ?

a) Public
b) Private
c) Community
d) Hybrid

Answer: a

14. _______ provides virtual machines, virtual storage, virtual infrastructure, and other hardware assets

a) IaaS
b) SaaS
c) PaaS
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: a

15. How many types of service model are mainly present in Cloud ?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

Answer: c

16. Which of the following is most important area of concern in cloud computing ?

a) Security
b) Storage
c) Scalability
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: a

17. What are the business benefits involved in cloud architecture?

The benefits involved in cloud architecture is

a) Zero infrastructure investment

b) Just in time infrastructure

c) More efficient resource utilization

d) Above of all

Answer: d

18. You can’t count on a cloud provider maintaining your _____ in the face of government actions.

a) scalability
b) reliability
c) privacy
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: c

19. Which of the following is deployment model ?

a) public
b) private
c) hybrid
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: d

20. The ________ cloud infrastructure is operated for the exclusive use of an organization.

a) Public
b) Private
c) Community
d) All of the mentioned

Answer:b

21. List down the basic characteristics of cloud computing?

a) Elasticity and Scalability

b) Self-service provisioning and automatic de-provisioning

c) Standardized interfaces

d) Billing self service based usage model

e) Above of all

Answer: e

22. __________ cloud is one where the cloud has been organized to serve a common function or purpose.

a) Public
b) Private
c) Community
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: c

23. What port is used for HTTP?

a) 443

b) 80

c) 23

d) 21

Answer: b

24. Custom application development is generally done on which type of cloud service?

a) Infrastructure-as-a-Service (IaaS)

b) Software-as-a-Service (SaaS)

c) Platform-as-a-Service (PaaS)

d) Development-as-a-Service (DaaS)

Ans-C

25. In general, which type of cloud service provides the most areas of accountability for the customer?

a) Platform-as-a-Service (PaaS)

b) Security-as-a-Service

c) Infrastructure-as-a-Service (IaaS)

d) Software-as-a-Service (SaaS)

Ans-c

26. Which of the following model allows vendor to provide security as part of the Service Level Agreement ?

a)SaaS

b)PaaS

c)IaaS

d)None Of these

Ans-a

27. ________ describes a distribution model in which applications are hosted by a service provider and made available to users.

A. Infrastructure-as-a-Service (IaaS)

B. Platform-as-a-Service (PaaS)

C. Software-as-a-Service (SaaS)

D. Cloud service

Ans-c

28. To find the best security-as-a-service offering for your organization:

a) Ask the vendor what they recommend

b) Assess your requirements, do a risk assessment and a cost/benefit analysis of the options

c) Find the cheapest monthly option and use whatever is offered with that service

d) Ask your peers and do exactly what they're doing

Ans-b

29. Access to a Cloud environment always costs more money compared to a traditional desktop

a) True

b) False

Ans-b

30. A Cloud environment can be accessed from anywhere in the world as long as the user has access to the Internet

a) True

b) False

Ans-a

31. What are the advantages of using cloud computing?

The advantages of using cloud computing are

a) Data backup and storage of data

b) Powerful server capabilities

c) SaaS ( Software as a service)

d) Information technology sandboxing capabilities

e) Increase in productivity

f) Cost effective & Time saving

Ans-all

32. _________ is the feature of cloud computing that allows the service to change in size or volume in order to meet a user’s needs.

A. Scalability

B. Virtualization

C. Security

D. Cost-savings

Ans-a

33. Mention the services that are provided by Window Azure Operating System?

a) Compute

b) Storage

c) Management

d) Hardware service

ans-a,b,c

34. ________ describes a cloud service that can only be accessed by a limited amount of people.

A. Data center

B. Private cloud

C. Virtualization

D. Public cloud

ans- b

35. List down the basic characteristics of cloud computing?

a) Elasticity and Scalability

b) Self-service provisioning and automatic de-provisioning

c) Standardized interfaces

d) Billing self-service based usage model

e) All of above

ans- e

36. Mention some open source cloud computing platform databases?

The open source cloud computing platform databases are

a) MongoDB

b) CouchDB

c) LucidDB

ans-all

37. Before going for cloud computing platform what are the essential things to be taken in concern by users?

a) Compliance

b) Loss of data

c) Data storage

d) Business continuity

e) Uptime

f) Data integrity in cloud computing

ans-all

38. What is the requirement of virtualization platform in implementing cloud?

The requirement of virtualization platform in implementing cloud is to

a) Manage the service level policies

b) Cloud Operating System

c) Virtualization platforms helps to keep the backend level and user level concepts different from each other

ans-all

39. Which are different models for deployment in cloud computing?

a) Private Cloud

b) Public Cloud

c) Community Cloud

d) Hybrid Cloud

ans-All

40. What are the advantages of using cloud computing?

The advantages of using cloud computing are

a) Data backup and storage of data

b) Powerful server capabilities

c) SaaS ( Software as a service)

d) Information technology sandboxing capabilities

e) Increase in productivity

f) Cost effective & Time saving

ans-all

41. What are the benefits of cloud computing?

The main benefits of cloud computing are:

a) Data backup and storage of data.

b) Powerful server capabilities.

c) Incremented productivity.

d)Cost effective and time saving.

Ans-all

42. Give the best example for open source Cloud Computing.

a) OpenStack

b) Windows stack

ans-a

43. Which of the following is not a cloud service model?

a)SaaS

b)PaaS

c)CaaS

d)IaaS

ans-c

44. Which of the following is best known service model ?

a)SaaS

b)PaaS

c) IaaS

d) All of above

ans-d

45. Which of the following cloud concept is related to pooling and sharing of resources ?

a) Polymorphism

b) Abstraction

c) Virtualization

d) None of the mentioned

Ans-c

46. Which Data Center is Fault Tolerance?

I. Tier 1

II. Tier 2

III. Tier 3

IV. Tier 4

Answer: IV

47. What is the full form of TIA?

I. Telecommunications Industry Association

II. Telnet Industry Association

III. Telecom Industry Association

IV. Tech Information Association

Answer: I (Telecommunications Industry Association)

48. What is the full form of ANSI?

I. American National Structured Institute

II. American National Standards Institute

III. American Narcotic Standards Institute

IV. Associate National Standards Industry

Answer: II (American National Standards Institute)

49. The term ‘Tier’ was used in the ANSI/TIA-942 Standard until the ANSI/TIA-942: _________ edition?

I. April-2015

II. June-2016

III. March-2014

IV. May-2014

Answer: III (March-2014)

50. Tier II annual outage of up to?

I. 1 hours

II. 22 hours

III. 4 hours

IV. 11 hours

Answer: II (22 hours)

51. Tier IV availability %?

I. 98.995%

II. 99.000%

III. 99.900%

IV. 99.995%

Answer: IV (99.995%)

52. DASD?

I. Direct-Access Storage Device

II. Data-Access Storage Device

III. Direct-Access Storage Data

IV. Direct-Access Structure Data

Answer: I (Direct- Access Storage Device)

53. For this Uptime Tier, critical power and cooling components -- not their delivery paths -- must be redundant.

I. TIER I

II. TIER II

III. TIER III

IV. TIER IV

Answer: II (TIER II)

54. This Uptime Tier DOES NOT requires redundant facility components.

I. TIER I

II. TIER II

III. TIER III

IV. TIER IV

Answer: I (TIER I)

55. Raised Floor System’s for 1000 to 5000 square feet?

I. 12 to 18 inches

II. 10 to 16 inches

III. 12 to 17 inches

IV. 11 to 18 inches

Answer: I (12 to 18 inches)

56. HVAC?

I. Heating, ventilation, and air conditioning

II. Health, ventilation, and air conditioning

III. Heating, ventilation, and air cooler

IV. Heat-ventilator, and air conditioning

Answer: I (Heating, ventilation, and air conditioning)

57. UPS?

I. Unorganized Power Supply

II. Unite Power Supply

III. Uninterruptible Power Solution

IV. Uninterruptible Power Supply

Answer: IV (Uninterruptible Power Supply)

58. An average panel size?

I. 25" x 25"

II. 24" x 24"

III. 26" x 26"

IV. 28" x 28"

Answer: II (24" x 24")

59. Which of the following is not a benefit of server virtualization technology?

a) Agile capacity

b) More hardware

c) Expanded disaster recovery options

d) Better utilization of resources

Answer: b

60. When implementing virtualization, a server must provide ample memory space for the ______.

a)Operating system

b)Hypervisor

c)Virtual machines on the server

d)All of the above

Answer: d

61. Which is not a Data center components

a) Cooling

b) RACK

c) Access Control

d) Storage

e) Printer

Answer: e

62. What are the 3 key components of a physical infrastructure in a data center?

I. Systems

II. Connectivity

III. Data

IV. All of the above

Answer: IV (All of the above)

63. DCIE?

I. Data Center Infrastructure Efficiency

II. Data Center Intervention Efficiency

III. Data Center Infrastructure Enterprise

IV. Data Cloud Infrastructure Efficiency

Answer: I (Data Center Infrastructure Efficiency)

64. TIER III fault tolerant %?

I. 89.982%

II. 99.983%

III. 79.984%

IV. 99.999%

Answer: I (99.982%)

65. The ANSI/TIA-942 specification references private and public domain data center requirements for applications and procedures such as:

I. Network Architecture

II. System Redundancy

III. Network Access Control & Security

IV. All of the above.

Answer: IV (All of the above)

66. How many area networks are there?

a) 2

b) 3

c) 4

d) 5

Answer: b

67. What is the full form of WAN?

a) World Area Network

b) Web Area Network

c) Wide Area Network

d) Wild Area Network

Answer: c

68. How many main local area network topologies are there?

a) 5

b) 6

c) 4

d) 3

Answer: d

69. Which one network topology?

a) Bus

b) Ring

c) Mesh

d) All of the above

Answer: d

70. Which types of cable used in Star topology?

a) Coaxial

b) Twisted pair

c) Fiber optic

d) All of the above

Answer: d

71. Which types of cabling used in Ring topology?

a) Coaxial or Fiber optic

b) Twisted pair or Fiber optic

c) Coaxial or Twisted pair

d) All of the above

Answer: b

72. What is full form of MAC?

a) Media Advanced Control

b) Media Access Control

c) Multi Access Control

d) Mid Access Control

Answer: b

73. Which one wireless topologies?

a) Ad hoc

b) Infrastructure

c) Both a & b

d) None of the above

Answer: c

74. How many types cable are used in LAN?

a) 2

b) 3

c) 4

d) 5

Answer: b

75. How many types wiring are there?

a) 2

b) 3

c) 4

d) 5

Answer: a

76. Which topology used to use baseband signaling method?

a) Bus

b) Star

c) Ring

d) All of the above

Answer: d

77. What is full form of AUI?

a) Attach Unit Interface

b) Attachment Unit Interface

c) Anti-attach Unit Interface

d) Advance Unit Interface

Answer: b

78. What is full form of UTP cable?

a) Unit Twisted Pair

b) Unshielded Twisted Pair

c) Unit-shielded Twisted Pair

d) None of the above

Answer: b

79. Which cable used in LAN?

a) Coaxial

b) Twisted pair

c) Fiber optic

d) All of the above

Answer: d

80. Which topology requires an enormous amount of cable?

a) Bus

b) Ring

c) Mesh

d) All of the above

Answer: c

81. What is the full form of LAN?

a) Land Area Network

b) Long Area Network

c) Local Area Network

d) None of the above

Answer: c

82. What is the full form of MAN?

a) Metro Area Network

b) Metropolitan Area Network

c) Both a & b

d) None of the above

Answer: b

83. Segments are connected by.................?

a) Consoles

b) Repeaters

c) Hubs

d) None of the above

Answer: b

84. Which topology supports baseband and broadband signals?

a) Bus

b) Ring

c) Mesh

d) None

Answer: c

85. Which one is topology below here?

a) Bus

b) Ring

c) Mesh

d) All of the above

Answer: d

86. Consists of the hardware in a biometric device that converts biometric input into electrical signals and conveys this information to the attached computer, such as a fingerprint sensor.

a) Arch

b) Sensor

c) Identity

d) Mimic

Answer: b

87. A method of biometric identification and pattern recognition that is used to determine the identity of the subject.

a) Ridge Ending

b) Iris recognition

c) Iris Scanning

d) Live Scan

Answer: b

88. All but one of the following is examples of two-factor authentication. Which of these is the odd one out, because it does not involve two factors?

a) A VPN token and password

b) Entering your password twice

c) The chip and PIN on a bank card

d) A hardware security token and password

Answer: b

89. A method that uses two independent pieces/processes of information to identify a user is known as…

a) Authentication through encryption

b) Password-method authentication

c) Two-method authentication

d) Two-factor authentication

Answer: d

90. Authentication is

a) Restrictions on who (or what) can access system

b) Process by which you verify that someone is who they claim they are

c) Finding out if the person, once identified, is permitted to have the resource.

d) a, b, and c

Answer: d

91. Inference control is a mechanism to confine the information content of data or behaviour made accessible to or being observable by a participant to whom some piece(s) of information should be kept confidential.

a) True

b) False

Answer: a

92. A CAPTCHA is an acronym for "completely automated public Turing test to tell computers and humans apart") is a type of challenge–response test used in computing to determine whether or not the user is human. The common form of CAPTCHA is:

a) Audio

b) Visual

c) Text

d) All of The Above

Answer: d

93. Firewall must determine what to let in to internal network and/or what to let out

a) As CEO

b) As Secretary

c) As MD

d) As Prime Minister

Answer: b

94. How to authenticate a human to a machine?

a) Password

b) Smartcard

c) Fingerprint

d) All of The Above

Answer: d

95. Password acts as!

a) PIN

b) Social security number

c) Mother’s maiden name

d) All of The Above

Answer: d

96. SPSE key is _______ keys and _______ bits.

a) Crypto, 64

b) Crypto, 61

c) Cyber ton, 63

d) Passkey, 62

Answer: a

97. Which one is true?

a) SPSE passwords are 6 characters and 250 different characters.

b) SPSE passwords are 7 characters and 256 different characters.

c) SPSE passwords are 8 characters and 256 different characters.

d) SPSE passwords are 6 characters and 290 different characters.

Answer: c

98. Which attack is quite common?

a) Dictionary attack

b) Dictator attack

c) Durable attack

d) Device attack

Answer: a

99. Which password will be considered as strong password?

a) POkem0N09

b) 4444

c) 102560

d) AustinStamp

Answer: a

100. Which one is a bad password?

a) 09864376537263

b) Fsa7YagO

c) PokEGCTall150

d) Fido

Answer: d

101. What is the percentage of the chance of easy to crack password.

a) 30%

b) 40%

c) 50%

d) 60%

Answer: a

102. Which are the popular password cracking tools?

a) Password Crackers

b) Password nutshell

c) John the Ripper (Unix)

d) a and c

Answer: d

103. Intrusion prevention is a traditional focus of computer security

a) Authentication is to prevent intrusions

b) Firewalls a form of intrusion prevention

c) Virus defences also intrusion prevention

d) All of the above

Answer: d

104. What do intruders do?

a) Launch well-known antivirus

b) Launch new or little-known attacks

c) Use a system to attack other systems

d) b and c

Answer: d

105. Intrusion detection systems (IDS) scans for

a) unusual activity

b) day to day activity

c) system loopholes

d) files anomaly

Answer: a

106. Which Component is most vital of a Colocation Data Center?

¨ Space ¨ Raise Floor þ Power ¨ Rack

107. The lifetime of Telco/Electric devices depend upon;

þ Proper Temperature ¨ Lighting system ¨ Fire Protection ¨ None of them

108. Major Consideration of Load calculation (Power);

¨ No of Rack ¨ Space ¨ No of Light þ Devices per rack, Total Racks & Space

109. Availability of Tier-4 Data Center;

þ 99.995% ¨ 99.982% ¨ 99.74% ¨ 99.67%

110. Continuous Cooling requirements in

¨ Tier-1 DC ¨ Tier-2 DC ¨ Tier-3 DC þ Tier-4 DC

111. As per Gatner Report, Average Power load per rack;

þ 4 KW ¨ 6 KW ¨ 10 KW ¨ None of above

112. Detail of the power usage pattern in the data center:

¨ Power (AC) ¨ Power (DC) ¨ UPS/Inverter ¨ Generator þ All of above

113. Generally Cooling System in a data center;

¨ PAC ¨ Free Cooling ¨ Chiller þ All of above

114. What is the Energy Factor for HVAC?

þ 60% ¨ 50% ¨ 40% ¨ 80%

115. Which is not the power component?

¨ UPS ¨ PDF ¨ Substation þ ODF/DDF

116. OPEX (mainly) of a data center depends upon;

¨ Load usage & Cost per KWh ¨ Salary and Wages ¨ Rent & office maintenance þ All of above

117. Please select the relationship between Heat and Power

þ Watt—BTU/hr—Tons ¨ KWh—Tons--- BTU/hr ¨ Tons—Kw--- BTU/hr ¨ None of above

118. DRS is Needed for Redundancy?

þ Yes ¨ No

119. Single Mode Fibre transmits signals over long distances by carrying light.

a. True b. False

Ans: a

120. Where Single-mode fibre optic cables are utilized?

a. Lower bandwidth applications b. Higher bandwidth applications

c. Both d. None of these

Ans: b

121. Single-mode fibre has small core size of –

a. 7 microns b. 8 microns

c. 9 microns d. 10 microns

Ans: c

122. At which Wavelength the single-mode fibers in telecommunication cables operate?

a. 1210 or 1450 nm b. 1310 or 1450 nm

c. 1310 or 1550 nm d. 1410 or 1650 nm

Ans: c

123. Maximum bandwidths and corresponding distances for single-mode are: 80 km for 10-gigabit Ethernet at 1310nm and 200km at 1550nm.

a. True b. False

Ans: b

124. Which fibre is recommended for Gigabit Ethernet?

a. Single-mode b. Multi-mode

c. Optical d. None of These

Ans: a

125. What is the color of jacket for OM1?

a. Red b. Blue

c. Aqua d. Orange

Ans: d

126. What is the data rate for OM1?

a. 2GB @ 850nm b. 1GB @ 550nm

c. 1GB @ 850nm d. 2GB @ 950nm

Ans: c

127. The core size of OM2-

a. 40um b. 50um

c. 60um d. 70um

Ans: b

128. The distance coverage by OM2 is up to 700 meters.

a. True b. False

Ans: b

129. The Data rate for OM3- Laser-Optimized Multimode-

a. 10GB @ 850nm b. 5GB @ 850nm

c. 8GB @ 850nm d. 3GB @ 850nm

Ans: a

130. OM3 Able to run 40GB or 100GB up to 100 meters utilizing a MPO connector.

a. True b. False

Ans: a

131. What is the color of jacket for OM3?

a. Red b. Blue

c. Aqua d. Orange

Ans: c

132. Nodes are another name of

a)Devices

b)Links

c)Medium

d)Modes

Ans: a

133. OM4 fibre is not used in where?

a. Data Centers b. Financial Centers

c. Corporate Campuses d. None of These

Ans: d

134. OM5 fibre specifies a wider range of wavelengths between 800nm and 993nm.

a. True b. False

Ans: b

135. Why OM5 fibre is better than OM4 fibre?

a. Transmission distance b. Speed

c. Cost d. All of the above

Ans: d

136. Official cable jacket color for OM5-

a. Red b. Lime Green

c. Orange d. Aqua

Ans: b

137. OM1 and OM2 fibres can not support 25Gbps and 40 Gbps data transmission.

a. True b. False

Ans: a

138. OM5 is designed to reduce fibre counts for high speed transmission.

a. True b. False

Ans:a

139. What is PDU in power?

a)Project distribution unit

b)Power district unit

c)Power distribution unit

d)None

Ans: c

140. An average data center consumes over 100x the power of a large commercial office building, True or False.

Ans: True

141. How much global electricity consume by Data Center’s?

a) 2.5%%

b) 3%

c) 3.5%

d) 4%

Ans: b

142. DR Means?

a) Disaster Recovery

b) Data Recovery

c) Disaster Replace

d) Data Reset

Ans: a

143. 40% of the total operational costs for a data center come from the energy, True or False.

Ans: true

144. Which is not a Operatin System?

a) Linux

b) Windos

c) IOS

d) Microsoft Word

Ans: d

145. What is not needed for ‘tier I, II ' data centers?

a) Dual-power source

b) Cooling system

c) Dual IT equipment

d) Disaster Recovery

Ans: Disaster Recovery

146. What is the redundant rate of ‘tier III’ data center?

a) 99.971%

b) 99.941%

c) 99.982%

d) 99.995%

Ans: c

147. What is Data Center Risk Factor?

a) Natural disaster

b) Human caused

c) Climate

d) Civil Disruptions

Ans: All

148. Google goal is powered its data centers by 100 percent renewable energy, True or False.

Ans: True

149. Google use water to cooling its data centers, Ture or False.

150. Which is not Data Centre Certification Body?

a) ANSI/BICSI 002-2014

b) The Green Grid

c) BSTI

d) TIA-942

Ans: c

151. How many Tiers of data are there?

a) 3

b) 4

c) 5

d) 6

Ans: b

152. Disaster Recovery is the most important part of ‘tier I’ data center, True or False.

Ans: False

153. ‘Tier III’ data center needed dual power source, True or False.

Ans: true

154. What is facility Risk Factor?

a) Supplier outages

b) Natural disasters

c) Human Caused

d) Power

Ans: d

155. The Green Grid is profitable organization, True or False.

Ans: True

156. What is External Risk Factor?

a) Water

b) Natural disasters

c) Fire

d) Power

Ans: b

157. What is Data System Risk Factor?

a) Viruses

b) Natural disasters

c) Fire

d) Power

Ans: a

158. In ‘tier IV’ data center all cooling equipment is independently single powered; adds Fault-tolerance (99.995%, 26 minutes), True or False

Ans: False

159. CIA Stands For

a) Confidentiality, Integer, Accounting

b) Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability

c) Confidence, Integer, Availability

d) Confidentiality, Integer, Availability

Ans: b

160. What is DoS Attack?

a) Distributed of Service

b) Denial of Service

c) District of Service

d) Divide of Service

Ans: b

161. To hide information inside a picture, what technology is used?

a) Rootkits
b) Bitmapping
c) Steganography
d) Image Rendering

Ans: c

162. What is the purpose of a Denial of Service attack?

a) Exploit a weakness in the TCP/IP stack
b) To execute a Trojan on a system
c) To overload a system so it is no longer operational
d) To shutdown services by turning them off

Ans: c

163. What is the sequence of a TCP connection?

a) SYN-ACK-FIN
b) SYN-SYN ACK-ACK
c) SYN-ACK
d) SYN-SYN-ACK

Ans: b

164. Why would a ping sweep be used?

a) To identify live systems
b) To locate live systems
c) To identify open ports
d) To locate firewalls

Ans: a

165. What port does Telnet use?

a) 22
b) 80
c) 20
d) 23

Ans: d

166. What is the most important activity in system hacking?

a) Information gathering

b) Cracking passwords

c) Escalating privileges

d) Covering tracks

Ans: b

167. What protocol is the Active Directory database based on?

a) LDAP

b) TCP

c) SQL

d) HTTP

Ans: a

168. Services running on a system are determined by _____________.

a) The system’s IP address.

b) The Active Directory

c) The system’s network name

d) The port assigned

Ans: d

169. Keyloggers are a form of ______________.

a) Spyware

b) Shoulder surfing

c) Trojan

d) Social engineering

Ans:a

170. What is the best statement for taking advantage of a weakness in the security of an IT system?

a) Threat

b) Attack

c) Exploit

d) Vulnerability

Ans: c

171. BIA Means?

a) Business Impact Analysis

b) Business Integrity Analyst

c) Business Impact Analyst

d) Business Import Analyst

Ans: a

172. Which are BCP steps?

a) Risk Analysis

b) BIA

c) Plan

d) Training, Testing, Auding

e) All of above

Ans: e

173. Which two of the following statements are true about a switch? (choose two)

a) It is a repeater.

b) It is a data link layer device.

c) It will forward the frame out all ports when it receives a broadcast from a host.

d) It reads the destination Mac address to forward traffic out the appropriate port.

e. It acts as an amplifier.

ans: b,d

174. Which of the following best describes the cable that is used to connect a laptop to an Ethernet port on a

cisco router?

a) crossover

b) Straight-through

c) Fiber

d) Rollover

ans: a

175. Which type of cable used on the ATM card?

a) Fiber-optic

b) coaxial

c) Serial

d) crossover

Ans: a

176. For which type of connection should a straight-through cable be used?

a) switch to switch

b) switch to hub

c) switch to router

d) hub to hub

E) router to Pc

ans: c

177. Which type of cable is used to connect the cOM port of a host to the cOM port of a router or switch?

a) crossover

b) straight-through

c) rolled

d) shielded twisted-pair

ans: c

178. The speed of Ethernet is

a) 64 Kbps

b) 64 Mbps

c) 10 Kbps

d) 10 Mbps

ans: d

179. With which of the following characteristics, the design issues of a physical layer deals ?

a) Mechanical

b) Electrical

c) Functional

d) all of above

ans: d

180. Data which is routed between networks or from node to node within networks requires only the functions of OSI

a ) Layers 1 and 2

b) Layers 1 through 3

c) all layers

d) None of the above

ans: b

181. A device operating at the network layer is called a

a)Bridge

b)Router

c)Repeater

d)None of the above

Ans: b

182. Usually traffic in a network is measured by

a)blocking probabilities

b)grade of service

c)relative congestion

d)erlangs

Ans: c

183. ___________ are rules that govern a communication exchange.

a)Media

b)Interfaces

c)Protocols

d)All of the above

Ans: c

184. Which of the following OS is not based on Linux?

a)Ubuntu

b)Redhat

c)CentOs

d)BSD

Ans: d

185. Maximum how long can a Linux filename be?

a)128 bytes

b)255 bytes

c)32 bytes

d)64 bytes

Ans: b

186. Which command(s) is/are used to get help about a command in Linux?

a)info

b)man

c)None of these

d)Both a and b

Ans: d

187. Which of the following OS is not based on Linux?

a)Ubuntu

b)Redhat

c)CentOs

d)BSD

Ans:d

188. Which command is used to get the kernel version in Linux?

a)uname -r

b)kernel

c)uname -n

d)uname -s

Ans:a

189. Which command is used to list all the files ?

a)ls

b)rm -r

c)list

d)lis

190. Which command is used for showing current directory?

a)ls

b)cp

c)pwd

d)cd

Ans: c

191. Which command is/are used to remove directory in Linux?

a)rmdir

b)rm -r

c)pwd

d)both a & b

Ans: d

192. Which of the following command is used to create file in Linux?

a)touch

b)cat

c)echo

d)All of the above

Ans:d

193. In Linux everything stored as a

a)file

b)directory

c)executables

d)None of the above

Ans:a

194. Which command is used to display the operating system name?
a) os
b) unix
c) kernel
d) uname

Ans: d

195. The permission –rwx-r–r– represented in octal expression will be
a) 777
b) 666
c) 744
d) 711

Ans: c

196. Which of these is not a Unix Flavor?
a) BSD
b) MAC
c) AIX
d) IRIX

Ans: b

197. Which of the following UNIX flavor is from IBM?
a) BSD
b) Solaris
c) HP-UX
d) AIX

Ans: d

198. Which among the following is used to write small programs to control Unix functionalities?

a) Shell Commands
b) Shell Script
c) Filters
d) C Language

Ans: b

199. Command used to count number of character in a file is
a) grep
b) wc
c) count
d) cut

Ans: wc

200. Which of the following commands can be used to copy files across systems?

a) ssh
b) telnet
c) rsh
d) ftp

Ans: d

201. Which Protocol is vulnerable?

a)telnet

b)ssh

c)sftp

d) all of above

Ans: a

202. Which of the following commands will allow the user to search contents of a file for a particular pattern

a) touch
b) grep
c) find
d) ls

Ans: b

203. FTP means?

a) File Transfer Person

b) File Transit Parameter

c) File Transfer Protocol

d) None

Ans: c

204. A program that can retrieve files from the world wide web and render text, images or sounds encoded in the files.

a) Browser
b) Internet
c) Server
d) Web Server

Ans: a

205. Which of the following is not a type of browser?
a) Netscape
b) Web
c) IE
d) Mozilla

Ans: b

206. Both client and server release _________ connection after a page has been transferred.

a) IP
b) TCP
c) Hyperlink
d) Network

Ans: b

207. The web works on this model.

a) Intranet
b) Internet
c) Client-Server
d) Server

Ans: c

208. In the Client-server model, the client receives a request from the server.

a) True
b) False

Ans: b

209. Which of the following is not a type of server?

a) File
b) Web
c) Name
d) Browsers

Ans: d

210. Apache is a type of ________

a) Transmission control program
b) Web Server
c) Web Browser
d) DBMS

Ans: b

211. Any computer that can access the server is called?

a) Web Server
b) Web Browser
c) User
d) Web Client

Ans: d

212. Bus is a type of topology.

a) True
b) False

Ans: a

213. _____ LAN topology describes the possible connections between pairs of networked end-points that can communicate.

a) Complex
b) Physical
c) Logical
d) Incremental

Ans: c

214. A term that refers to the way in which the nodes of a network are linked together.

a) network
b) topology
c) connection
d) interconnectivity

Ans: b

215. A network comprising o multiple topologies.

a) Complex
b) Hybrid
c) Bus
d) Star

Ans: b

216. he participating computers in a network are referred to as:

a) Clients
b) Servers
c) Nodes
d) CPUs

Ans: c

217. A ____________WAN can be developed using leased private lines or any other transmission facility

a) Hybrids
b) peer-to-peer
c) Two-tiered
d) Three-tiered

Ans: b

218. A serially connected system of all the hubs of networks.

a) Bus
b) Ring
c) Daisy chains
d) Star

Ans: c

219. Plain text is the data after encryption is performed.

a) True
b) False

Ans: b

220. A unique piece of information that is used in encryption.

a) Cipher
b) Plain Text
c) Key
d) Cipher

Ans: c

221. Study of creation of encryption and decryption techniques.
a) Cipher
b) Cryptography
c) Encryption
d) Decryption

Ans: b

222. A malicious code hidden inside a seemingly harmless piece of code.

a) Worm
b) Bomb
c) Trojan Horse
d) Virus

Ans: c

223. Attack in which a user creates a packet that appears to be something else.

a) Smurfing
b) Trojan
c) E-mail bombing
d) Spoofing

Ans: d

224. An attack in which the user receives unwanted amount of e-mails.

a) Smurfing
b) Denial of service
c) E-mail bombing
d) Ping storm

Ans: c

225. Network Security provides authentication and access control for resources.

a) True
b) False

Ans: a

226. Which is not an objective of network security?

a) Identification
b) Authentication
c) Access control
d) Lock

Ans: d

227. The process of verifying the identity of a user.

a) Authentication
b) Identification
c) Validation
d) Verification

Ans: a

228. A concern of authentication that deals with user rights.

a) General access
b) Functional authentication
c) Functional authorization
d) Auto verification

Ans: c

229. Security features that control that can access resources in the OS.
a) Authentication
b) Identification
c) Validation
d) Access control

Ans: d

230. An algorithm in encryption is called _____________
a) Algorithm
b) Procedure
c) Cipher
d) Module

Ans: c

231. The information that gets transformed in encryption is ____________

a) Plain text
b) Parallel text
c) Encrypted text
d) Decrypted text

Ans: a

232. ________________ is a paradigm of distributed computing to provide the customers on-demand, utility based computing service.

a) Remote Sensing
b) Remote Invocation
c) Cloud Computing
d) Private Computing

Ans: c

233. Cloud providers provide cloud services to the cloud users.

a) True
b) False

Ans: a

234. Which of the following is not a cloud stakeholder?

a) Cloud providers
b) Clients
c) End users
d) Cloud users

Ans: b

235. These cloud services are of the form of utility computing i.e. the _________ uses these services pay-as-you-go model.

a) Cloud providers
b) Clients
c) End users
d) Cloud users

Ans: d

236. Which of the following is not a type of cloud?
a) Private
b) Public
c) Protected
d) Hybrid

Ans: c

237. In this type of cloud, an organization rents cloud services from cloud providers on-demand basis.
a) Private
b) Public
c) Protected
d) Hybrid

Ans: b

238. In this type of cloud, the cloud is composed of multiple internal or external cloud.

a) Private
b) Public
c) Protected
d) Hybrid

Ans:d

239. _____________ enables the migration of the virtual image from one physical machine to another.

a) visualization
b) virtualization
c) migration
d) virtual transfer

Ans: b

240. Most of the cloud architectures are built on this type of architecture.
a) skeleton
b) grid
c) linear
d) template

Ans: b

241. Saas stands for?
a) Software as a service
b) System Software and services
c) Software as a system
d) System as a service

Ans: a

242. Paas stands for

a)Platform as system

b)Platform as Software

c) Platform as a Service

d) None

Ans: c

243. A plug and play storage device that simply plugs in the port of a computer is __________
a) Flash drive
b) Compact disk
c) Hard disk
d) CD

Ans: a

244. A device similar to a flash drive ______________
a) Memory card
b) Compact drive
c) Compact disk
d) Memory disk

Ans: a

245. What does RAID stand for?
a) Redundant array of independent disks
b) Redundant array of inexpensive disks
c) Redundant array of intermediate disks
d) Redundant array of improper disks

Ans: b

246. The _____ is something that you can obtain under contract from your vendor.
a) PoS
b) QoS
c) SoS
d) All of the mentioned

Ans: b

247. Cloud computing is a _______ system and it is necessarily unidirectional in nature.
a) stateless
b) stateful
c) reliable
d) all of the mentioned

Ans: a

248. Which of the following is a compliance standard?
a) PCI-DSS
b) HIPPA
c) GLBA
d) All of the mentioned

Ans: d

249. Which of the following is a common means for losing encrypted data?
a) lose the keys
b) lose the encryption standard
c) lose the account
d) all of the mentioned

Ans: a

250. Which of the following is one of the most actively developing and important areas of cloud computing technology?
a) Logging
b) Auditing
c) Regulatory compliance
d) None of the mentioned

Ans: c

251. Secure shell (SSH) network protocol is used for
a) secure data communication
b) remote command-line login
c) remote command execution
d) all of the mentioned

Ans: d

252. SSH can be used in only
a) unix-like operating systems
b) windows
c) both unix-like and windows systems
d) none of the mentioned

Ans: c

253. SSH uses ___________ to authenticate the remote computer.
a) public-key cryptography
b) private-key cryptography
c) any of public-key or private-key
d) none of the mentioned

Ans: a

254. Which standard TCP port is assigned for contacting SSH servers?
a) port 21
b) port 22
c) port 23
d) port 24

Ans: b

255. Which one of the following protocol can be used for login to a shell on a remote host except SSH?
a) telnet
b) rlogin
c) both telnet and rlogin
d) none of the mentioned

Ans: c

256. Which one of the following is a file transfer protocol using SSH?
a) SCP
b) SFTP
c) Rsync
d) All of the mentioned

Ans: d

257. Which one of the following authentication method is used by SSH?
a) public-key
b) host based
c) password
d) all of the mentioned

Ans: d

258. The attackers a network of compromised devices known as

a) Internet
b) Botnet
c) Telnet
d) D-net

Ans: b

259. When the mail server sends mail to other mail servers it becomes ____________

a) SMTP server
b) SMTP client
c) Peer
d) None of the mentioned

Ans: b

260. Expansion of SMTP is

a) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
b) Simple Message Transfer Protocol
c) Simple Mail Transmission Protocol
d) Simple Message Transmission Protocol

Ans: a

261. The underlying Transport layer protocol used by SMTP is
a) TCP
b) UDP
c) Either TCP or UDP
d) None of the mentioned

Ans: a

262. Typically the TCP port used by SMTP is
a) 25
b) 35
c) 50
d) 15

Ans: a

263. Network layer firewall works as a

a) Frame filter
b) Packet filter
c) Both Frame as well as Packet filter
d) None of the mentioned

Ans: b

264. A firewall is installed at the point where the secure internal network and untrusted external network meet which is also known as __________
a) Chock point
b) Meeting point
c) Firewall point
d) Secure point

Ans: a

265. The protocol used by Telnet application is
a) Telnet
b) FTP
c) HTTP
d) None of the mentioned

Ans: a

266. Telnet is a
a) Television on net
b) Network of Telephones
c) Remote Login
d) Teleshopping site

Ans: c

267. Ping can
a) Measure round-trip time
b) Report packet loss
c) Report latency
d) All of the mentioned

Ans: d

268. Ping sweep is a part of
a) Traceroute
b) Nmap
c) Route
d) Ipconfig

Ans: b

269. ICMP is used in
a) Ping
b) Traceroute
c) Ifconfig
d) Both Ping & Traceroute

Ans:d

270. __________ command is used to manipulate TCP/IP routing table.
a) route
b) Ipconfig
c) Ifconfig
d) Traceroute

Ans: a

271. If you want to find the number of routers between a source and destination, the utility to be used is.
a) route
b) Ipconfig
c) Ifconfig
d) Traceroute

Ans: d

272. In the layer hierarchy as the data packet moves from the upper to the lower layers, headers are
a) Added
b) Removed
c) Rearranged
d) Modified

Ans: a

273. The structure or format of data is called
a) Syntax
b) Semantics
c) Struct
d) None of the mentioned

Ans: a

274. The first Network

a) CNNET
b) NSFNET
c) ASAPNET
d) ARPANET

Ans: d

275. The _______ is the physical path over which a message travels
a) Path
b) Medium
c) Protocol
d) Route

Ans: b

276. Which of this is not a network edge device?

a) PC
b) Smartphones
c) Servers
d) Switch

Ans: d

277. Ethernet frame consists of

a) MAC address
b) IP address
c) both MAC address and IP address
d) none of the mentioned

Ans: a

278. MAC address is of
1) 24 bits
b) 36 bits
c) 42 bits
d) 48 bits

Ans: d

279. IP Address is of

1) 24 bits
b) 32 bits
c) 42 bits
d) 48 bits

Ans: b

280. High speed ethernet works on

a) coaxial cable
b) twisted pair cable
c) optical fiber
d) none of the mentioned

Ans: c

281. Optical fibers for communication use are mostly fabricated from
a) Plastic
b) Silica or multicomponent glass
c) Ceramics
d) Copper

Ans: b

282. large boxes that hold lots of hard disks

a) Host
b) Tape library
c) Switch
d) Disk Array
Ans: d

283. This consists of the precautions taken so that the effects of a disaster will be minimized.

a) Data retrieval
b) Disaster recovery
c) Archive
d) Replication

Ans: b

284. This is the practice of collecting computer files that have been packaged together for backup, to transport to some other location, for saving away from the computer so that more hard disks can be made available, or for some other purpose.
a) Backup
b) Archive
c) Migration
d) Compression

Ans: b

285. The challenges for data protection are
a) Taking care of the old data
b) Backing up the dynamic data
c) Restoring old data
d) All of the mentioned

Ans: b

286. Name the mechanism which provides the highest level of data protection
a) RAID 0
b) RAID 1
c) RAID 6
d) All of the mentioned

Ans: c

287. A NAS solution is most appropriate for what type of data environment
a) Secured Access
b) Shared access
c) Remote access
d) Parallel access

Ans: b

288. Which three statements describe differences between Storage Area Network (SAN) and Network Attached Storage (NAS) solutions? Choose three.
i. SAN is generally more expensive but provides higher performance
ii. NAS uses TCP/IP for communication between hosts and the NAS server
iii. NAS requires additional hardware on a host: a host bus adapter for connectivity
iv. SAN uses proprietary protocols for communication between hosts and the SAN fabric

a) i,ii, iii
b) i, ii, iv
c) ii, iii, iv
d) i, ii, iii

Ans: b

289. Which topology is best suited for medium sized enterprise.
a) NAS
b) SAN
c) DAS
d) None of the mentioned

Ans: a

290. Which of the following is false with respect to UDP
a) Connection-oriented
b) Unreliable
c) Transport layer protocol
d) All of the mentioned

Ans: a

291. The main advantage of UDP is
a) More overload
b) Reliable
c) Less overload
d) Fast

Ans: c

292. what is the header size of UDP packet?
a) 8 bytes
b) 8 bits
c) 16 bytes
d) 124 bytes

Ans: a

293. IPSec is designed to provide the security at the
a) transport layer
b) network layer
c) application layer
d) session layer

Ans: b

294. Network layer firewall works as a
a) frame filter
b) packet filter
c) both frame filter and packet filter
d) none of the mentioned

Ans: b

295. WPA2 is used for security in
a) ethernet
b) bluetooth
c) wi-fi
d) none of the mentioned

Ans: c

296. An attempt to make a computer resource unavailable to its intended users is called

a) denial-of-service attack
b) virus attack
c) worms attack
d) botnet process

Ans: a

297. HTTP is ________ protocol.
a) Application layer
b) Transport layer
c) Network layer
d) None of the mentioned

Ans: a

298. SSH can be used in only
a) unix-like operating systems
b) windows
c) both unix-like and windows systems
d) none of the mentioned

Ans: c

299. Which is not a TIER?

a) Tier i

b)Tier v

c) Tier iii

d) Tier iv

Ans: b

300. The network layer concerns with
a) bits
b) frames
c) packets
d) none of the mentioned

Ans: c

Pinak's Titan

Sunday, May 19, 2019

Why I'm A Local Guide

Application video for Google Local Guides Connect Live 2019 #LetsGuide

Flying clouds during Cyclone Fani in Bangladesh(Dhaka). #cyclonefani #cy...

Wednesday, May 01, 2019

Google Local Guides involvements of mine

Sunday, April 28, 2019

300 questions on Data Center Management with answers

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